You can demonstrate an absurd case, but check this out:
“On average, men are taller than women.”
Note the utter dearth of twisted, tortured forced phrasing and the way it totally requires no linguistic effort to generate that context if you just stop to think before you speak. If someone disputes that, they’re either clearly wrong or have an interesting study to look at (and probably debunk).
I’m a woman and I’m 6′5″ (taller than 99.9999% of women last time I checked), but I can’t see what’s wrong with stating it that way. Your reply is kind of a straw example of what’s being asked.
This was a good example, but I think you probably missed a part of the message. Or maybe I am imagining a part that did not exist.
Generally, people are speaking imprecisely. To state one’s opinion with a mathematical precision as you did, is rare. (For example, writing this paragraph I would have a problem to precisely define what “generally” and “rare” mean in this context.) And when normally speaking, people tolerate this. …uhm, usually.
Asking people to be precise is also a signal of something. We usually don’t demand perfect clarity for every sentence we ever read or hear, even on LW. I suppose we usually demand it when we disagree with one’s opinion.
Placing a burden of preciseness on some people or some opinions, provides their opponents cheap counter-attacks, when they don’t have to discuss the argument, only point out the impreciseness.
Now, carefully crafting one’s comments into precise sentences is possible, but has a non-zero cost. So by selectively asking people, whose opinion we don’t like, to be more precise than usual, we make them pay for their dissent. All while pretending that we only care about the truth, without taking sides.
Of course, people learn that they are asked for higher precision only when expressing certain opinions, so if they want to avoid the costs of such speech, they avoid the sensitive topics. But that’s the point, isn’t it? By increasing standards of speech for certain opinion, we gradually make it disappear.
I think that people often feel when this is done to them, but it’s kind of difficult for them to express what is happening, without seeming kind of paranoid. Also it’s kind of difficult to express your feelings in a situation when an extra dose of preciseness is required.
Summary: It is possible to selectively use demands for precision as a form of censorship.
Asking people to be precise is also a signal of something. We usually don’t demand perfect clarity for every
sentence we ever read or hear, even on LW. I suppose we usually demand it when we disagree with one’s
opinion.
I don’t want “perfect clarity* from people, I want for the people on this site who make declarative statements about groups of people they’re not in (especially when the implications shape their behavior toward members of that group) to be factually-accurate and not misleading in their implications. This is not a complex or censorious idea.
I don’t want “politically correct”, I want actually correct. Do you see the difference? What I want to see is people not committing the ecological fallacy (Population X is statistically Y on average, ergo more members than not will be Y) and nobody pointing it out just because the conclusions are agreeable to a majority on this site.
I do not have the power, let alone the desire, to censor you or any other poster on this site (other than by means of downvoting a comment, and I only get the one downvote).
I don’t want “politically correct”, I want actually correct.
My point was that I suspect that a presence of “politically incorrect” ideas increases our desire for actual correctness, while an absence of such ideas makes us relax.
Perhaps this bias already has a name; I don’t remember it. It means requiring stronger evidence to ideas you disagree with; and not being aware of it.
If you require the same level of proof for both “politically correct” and “politically incorrect” comments, then it is OK. But it seems to me that in many discussions the level of proof rises up at the moment that “politically incorrect” opinions are introduced.
EDIT: Of course, even if my hypothesis is true, this is not an evidence for “politically incorrect” ideas (that would just be trying to reverse stupidity).
EDIT2: I would like to taboo the term “politically incorrect” in this comment, but I can’t find a short enough substitute with the same expressive power. I would like to make it more group-dependent, not outside-world-dependent. It is supposed to mean: something that a decent member of this group would hesitate to say, because the morality keepers of this group will obviously disagree.
My point was that I suspect that a presence of “politically incorrect” ideas increases our desire for actual correctness, while an absence of such ideas makes us relax.
Perhaps this bias already has a name; I don’t remember it. It means requiring stronger evidence to ideas you disagree with; and not being aware of it.
It’s pretty clear that if we’re dealing with ideas whose incorrect versions have great potential to do harm, then we should be careful to only disseminate the correct versions. It’s a question of epistemic hygiene and minimizing the effects of contaminated mindware.
If we were discussing the recipe for a food that tasted marvelous when prepared correctly, but could cause severe poisoning when prepared incorrectly, then I would want people to be precise and careful in their wording as well. “Requiring stronger evidence for ideas you disagree with” doesn’t have much to do with it: it’s a straightforward expected utility calculation.
What would be the context of the comment, and what sense of “equal” is implied?
For instance, I probably wouldn’t object to someone saying “men and women are equal” if it was clear from the context that they meant “men and women should have equal rights”. On the other hand, there are a variety of well-documented statistical differences between men and women, and trying to deny some of those might be harmful.
E.g. I’ve often heard it claimed that the difference in average pay between women and men is mostly attributable to differences in ambition and time voluntarily spent at home with children. I haven’t looked at the matter enough to know if this is true. But if it is, then denying any population-level differences between men and women seems harmful, because it implies that something that actually has an innocuous explanation is because of discrimination.
I don’t think I’d use the word innocuous with the example of this reason for this gender difference. If it is a rational choice, why don’t both genders make similar choices?
Ok: let’s suppose he intended the primary definition of innocuous, “not harmful.” If a choice is made voluntarily, then by the assumption of revealed preferences it is the least ‘harmful.’ If we forced women to choose with the same distribution that men do, then on net women would be worse off- i.e. harmed by our force.
It seems incontestable to me that distributions of values are different for men and women. If values are different, choices will be different, and that is optimal.
I agree that men and women have different distributions of values due to sexual dimorphism. It isn’t obvious, though, that those different values are sufficient to explain women choosing to stay and home and raise children at a greater rate than men. For example, it may be the case the women face greater social pressure to raise children or that when couples choose who should continue working and who should stay home there is an unjustified cultural assumption that women should be the ones who stay home. There may also be social pressures in the other direction: pushing men to work more than is optimal. It is harder to find social companionship as a stay at home father and Western culture ties the ability to provide for a family to man’s worth. Even if these cultural norms are the product of on-average sexual dimorphism they would still harm those who deviate from the average values of their sex. A man who prefers to stay home and raise children and a woman who prefers to leave children at home to work may face additional costs to their decisions because their values deviate from what they are expected to value due to their gender.
I do not have any objection to your use of the word innocuous, here.
I think that calling the choice to spend more or less time doing financially unrecompensed work in the home an innocuous gender difference, is careless. The harms of the various choices have not been evaluated that well. And it may be impossible to evaluate that harm without bias.
It is not uncompensated financially, if the alternative is hiring someone to do the same work. It may or may not be under-compensated, depending on her other options.
Yay! Do you think your evaluation is bias-free? How much should normally financially-uncompensated work in the home be worth, market prices? Which is worth more, an investment of time or money?
Between cooks and gardeners and housekeepers and nannies and laundry services and grocery delivery and personal assistants, I am really failing to think of any housework that could not be contracted out. In which case, when members of the household do it themselves they are saving themselves precisely the cost of contracting it out. My laundering my shirts is being compensated at .99 cents/lb minus the cost of running the laundry machines. My cooking dinner is being compensated at the price of a meal out minus the cost of a meal in.
I think that calling the choice to spend more or less time doing financially unrecompensed work in the home an innocuous gender difference, is careless. The harms of the various choices have not been evaluated that well. And it may be impossible to evaluate that harm without bias.
The actual choices people make are often very carefully calculated with regard to benefits. And this includes both the choice to leave ‘home’ work to paid professionals, or unpaid amateurs. And the choice to become a well-paid professional (or self-employed professional).
I totally agree with this point:
(One specific example: women have ovaries, men have testes. Both organs release mind-affecting hormones, in different distributions.)
But rationally understanding the gender bias inherent in different choices does not make cleaning up after any other person, unpaid, a wholly joyous choice.
Circumstance 1) I go to my programming job, write programs for other people, and in the end my household has more money than otherwise.
Circumstance 2) Someone goes to a housekeeping job, cleans up after other people, and in the end their household has more money than otherwise.
Circumstance 3) Someone cleans their own household, part of which involves cleaning up after other people, in place of hiring a housekeeper, and in the end their household has more money than otherwise.
Please clarify why circumstance 2 is “paid” and circumstance 3 is “unpaid”, and why 3 is less “joyous” than 2; 3 may, in fact, prefer to be cleaning up for people they care about, and may be better appreciated. And who says a choice being “wholly joyous” is relevant anyway? My going to work instead of working on my own projects is the right decision (I believe), but it is not “wholly joyous”—just mostly.
My only point is this: gender differences and choice difference probably do not wholly justify the pay inequity between genders. The choice of the word ‘innocuous’ in this case is careless. Do you agree, or disagree?
In answer to your explicit question: I am speaking of negotiable payment, in tokens that can be exchanged in any market. And I am also calculating payment of intangible compensation, like the respect of others and self-respect. I find your actual questions, with quoted words to denote careful usage, confusing.
Payment in ‘increased money for the household’ is fine, and is part of the calculations individuals use to evaluate and justify their choices. And joys.
“wholly joyous” is, in my mind, an unattainable ideal, but the joy, payment, and respect individuals get for the work that they/we do is measurable, if not always negotiable. And the harm is not always considered at all.
I was never addressing the entirety of your argument—on which I have to reserve judgment, having not thought it through entirely.
As it happens, my wife and I both work. We both receive income in tokens that can be exchanged in any market. However, I think this is a meaningless distinction; per the laws of the state of California, money I make isn’t “mine” and money she makes “hers”—money either of us make is “ours”. As either of us works, we have more tokens. As either of us does tasks that save us money, we have more tokens. Describing the latter as not involving “financial recompense” I view as inaccurate.
If you simply wish to state that such work is under-compensated financially, I may agree. If you wish to state that such work is often under-appreciated, I would certainly agree. You stated that house work was financially unrecompensed.
I was simply picking a nit. If it critically undermines your argument, update. If it doesn’t, fix your argument. If you still disagree, please explain why.
I am really enjoying this discussion. And I respect the fact that you are reserving judgment, as you haven’t thought it out very thoroughly.
I didn’t think my objection to the use of the word innocuous through before I voiced it, and I absolutely don’t regret it.
But I am literally having trouble figuring out what else I am supposed to object to. I am willing to try to explain. And I think I can better understand my position, if I understand IF or HOW people disagree with my original objection about word choice. I have not stated this confusion often or clearly enough, so, to set a ‘good’ example, I will state it as a question:
Do you approve of the word innocuous, meaning harmless, in the statement above? Why or why not?
Having said all that, I’ll give it a stab a reply to your more recent comments anyway. The use of a question mark in your words makes it much easier for me to identify your question, and answer it.
Personal note: I am not usually trying to be ironic, but I am aware that I often come across that way. I make special effort on LW to be more precise and direct, and careful in my statements. Taking out the word ‘totally’, which I usually sling about in order to increase positive feedback in my day-to-day life, in order to suggest that I have a sense of humor about my unfortunate ‘know it all’ attitude may have been an error. Feel free to assume I am just trying to make a humorous point instead of a serious one, if you find me offensive on a rational level!
But enough about me...
‘such work’ is not defined, but I assume you are referring to home work, whether paid in negotiable tokens or ‘financially unrecompensed’.
I did not notice stating this:
You stated that house work was financially unrecompensed.
And what the state of CA thinks about the negotiable and non-negotiable arrangements you make with each other, or with employers, I do not really care about, as long as CA does not force you to live there, and there are a wide variety of other options available to you both. Do you have a wide variety of other options?
As either of us does tasks that save us money, we have more tokens. Describing the latter as not involving “financial recompense” I view as inaccurate.
I disagree with your conclusion, but on a somewhat pedantic level. Financial recompense and Optional reduction of financial expense are not equivalent. One is simply a pile of tokens. The other is a choice and a judgment about what to do with a pile of tokens. Do you disagree?
I disagree with your conclusion, but on a somewhat pedantic level. Financial recompense and Optional reduction of financial expense are not equivalent. One is simply a pile of tokens. The other is a choice and a judgment about what to do with a pile of tokens. Do you disagree?
It depends somewhat on whether we are speaking descriptively or prescriptively, in terms of how people think about it.
Do I think that most people consider these to be the same, and that you are some odd outlier for interpreting it differently? No.
I just think this perspective is less useful, and leads to (amongst other things) such work being undervalued. Fundamentally, I have a set of choices in front of me that represent different outcomes; in some of these, my pile of tokens is larger than in others. When my pile of tokens is larger down one path than another, I am being financially compensated for making that choice (or financially penalized for making the other).
Well, I totally agree that ‘such work’ (some paid and some unpaid work in the home) is absolutely undervalued, but I’m not sure what that has to do with any particular perspective.
I don’t know how other people think about the unpaid housework that other people are doing. I personally am grateful for it, but I have never supported anyone who I shared housework with, nor the reverse, and I really do have trouble doing the part I actually recognize as my share. And I have never cared as much about how clean things ‘ought’ to be as any of these roommates and ex-boyfriends did.
In myself, I kind of deplore this tendency to do what I’m inclined to and let the chips fall where they may. I do, of course, always manage to get things clean enough for my own standards. And I do far more housework when I live alone, because nobody else gets ‘fed up’ and takes over.
I had to respond somewhat anecdotally here, and I wish I could keep the more analytical, academic tone of your comment. My main problem with that is I’m not sure if I’m being descriptive or prescriptive, so I don’t know how to respond without figuring that out—but I need a nap first and I wanted to reply right away. If I’ve made it clear which I was doing with this response, that was totally my intention!
I can’t tell if your comment is mostly explanatory, or requests confirmation or introduces a new topic! Taking that nap now.
OK. I consider negotiable tokens to be the only definition of financially recompensed. An optional reduction of financial expense, on an individual level is simply personal budgeting.
In the case of any particular couple, how the work, paid or unpaid, is divided, I don’t really care. Unless the arrangement is a source of stress for that relationship.
I think that a gender-biased pay disparity can aggravate financial stress in heterosexual relationships. And I think that a high disparity in income level can cause a similar stress in any couple, no matter the actual gender or sexual orientation.
The questions of ‘how best can i contribute’ and ‘am I acting responsibly by choosing to contribute, unpaid, in the home while being supported (fully or partially) on someone else’s “dime” (long may it last)’ are difficult and sometimes conflicting questions, whether gender pay inequities are biased. Or irrelevant, because the couple are of the same gender.
Questions I wonder about but do not know the answers to:
How common are one-income households in either situation? How stable are one-income households compared to two income households? I’m pretty sure there’s quite a lot of data on heterosexuals.
Since gender bias probably exists, I wish we could compare it to data on homosexual couples, but they do not get the same social support or suffer the same social pressures… so I’m not sure how meaningful a comparison would be. But I’m still curious.
In the case of any particular couple, how the work, paid or unpaid, is divided, I don’t really care. Unless the arrangement is a source of stress for that relationship.
I agree.
In one of my dreams last night, I was living with a sorceress. She needed some reagents, and her friend on the moon wanted to use a human skeleton for some occult purpose. So she removed my first person perspective/spirit from my body and put it on the mantle across from the magic mirror, so I could see things that were going on. She then incinerated my flesh, leaving charred bones held together in human form by magic.
I then watched an Indiana Jones-style path animation of my skeleton going to the moon, and of magic supplies for my sorceress girlfriend being sent from there to Earth. Other stuff happened in the magic mirror, and eventually there was another path animation of my bones being sent back. My bones were magically cleaned, flesh was put on them, and my spirit was returned to my body.
Despite the fact that she didn’t ask my permission, I didn’t mind and wasn’t bothered by the events as they happened. In real life, I’m a different person and would probably mind such a thing.
My point is that whether something having to do with relative income or who does what in a relationship is a source of stress depends on the mindsets of the people in the relationship. If neither member of a couple minds acquiring goods or negotiable tokens by having one suddenly extrude the other’s soul, scorch their body until their bones are black, and lend them to friends, and they’re happier that way than they would be in less gruesome scenarios...that’s what works for them.
My point is that whether something having to do with relative income or who does what in a relationship is a source of stress depends on the mindsets of the people in the relationship. If neither member of a couple minds acquiring goods or negotiable tokens by having one suddenly extrude the other’s soul, scorch their body until their bones are black, and lend them to friends, and they’re happier that way than they would be in less gruesome scenarios...that’s what works for them.
It seems so obvious when you put it that way. (Upvoted for divine lunacy.)
I don’t want to get involved in the personal business between any two or three+ people, but I also do not mean to suggest that every arrangement that both parties agree to has a matching balance of stress and benefit to both parties. (Love your dream scenario! for me, that would totally be a nightmare.)
And I don’t think any specific gender causes the harm for a pattern of gender differences, like a bias to favor male employees because people report more satisfaction with male employees.
But with a gender-based pay inequity, which couples benefit most? gay men, straight people, or lesbians?
And should we care more about couples than we do about individuals, eg: single women? I don’t think anybody is suggesting this. But this is, in my mind, the primary problem with gender-based pay inequities, and ‘innocuous’ causes are no longer ‘innocuous’ if the harm to individuals is measurable and significant.
gender differences and choice difference probably do not wholly justify the pay inequity between genders.
To say that a situation is not wholly caused by enumerated factors is generally trivially true, so the question becomes how much connotation is intended, which means the question should probably be rephrased.
I don’t think it’s a good idea to ask if states of the world are justified when people disagree about the causes of those states of the world unless great care is taken to not be confusing. Those things can be addressed separately by just talking about causation and also asking what would be justified under a hypothetical set of facts.
And I am also calculating payment of intangible compensation, like the respect of others and self-respect.
I don’t know how to think of those things, particularly self respect, particularly since the frame is not just causation but justice.
To say that a situation is not wholly caused by enumerated factors is generally trivially true, so the question becomes how much connotation is intended, which means the question should probably be rephrased.
Very true, and I must pedantically point out that I did not ask a question about how much connotation was intended. I suggested that the connotation of ‘harmless’ seemed careless to me. Literally and seriously careless, especially given my trivial research into the subject revealed that there is bias for male employees that employers, rationally, respond to.
I don’t think it’s a good idea to ask if states of the world are justified when people disagree about the causes of those states of the world unless great care is taken to not be confusing. Those things can be addressed separately by just talking about causation and also asking what would be justified under a hypothetical set of facts.
I agree. I was trying to avoid this, because I mostly agree. I did not bring up the state of the world, and I seriously did avoid discussion of it in this thread, which apparently was also offensive? I am somewhat concerned about the state of the world, but I already take great care not to be confusing, and fail.
I do have some doubts about drawing conclusions from a hypothetical set of facts, unless those conclusions are testable and, in fact, tested. But I am philosophically inclined to talk hypotheticals long into the night...
I don’t know how to think of those things, particularly self respect, particularly since the frame is not just causation but justice.
Well, I probably care more about justice than I do just word choice. But I do far more for the cause of just word choice than any other. I will apologize for being elusive on more serious issues. I probably could have caused less confusion if I had not specifically tried to avoided answering questions about states of the world. Do you agree?
Not sure if serious. Just in case you are, however: ‘them’ is referring to the people doing financially unrecompensed work in the home. ‘it’ is the financially unrecompensed work in the home. ‘Who’ and ‘Whose’ are up to you to define—that’s why they’re phrased as questions, dontcha know.
I am trying to be clear about the fact that the ONLY part of this thread I care about was the use of the word ‘innocuous’. All these other questions are good questions that people are asking, and answering, for themselves, and for other people, every day. Which I have no quarrel with.
I do not want to answer these questions for other people. This question:
Who would compensate them? Whose benefit is it for?
is an excellent question that I actually do not want to answer, because noone has acknowledged that my point about the word innocuous is valid or valuable criticism. All the feedback I have seen so far dodges this small point to ask me much tougher questions about how individuals should be making these choices.
Why me? I make no assertions other than that the word ‘innocuous’ in that specific argument suggests that the reasons their is gender pay inequity is harmless. Because I am not sure that it is harmless.
I do not want to quantify the harm, but if you want me to take a stab at it, how about this:
Do some pay inequities cause stress? Does stress aggravate some mental disorders?
(for the record, I am not trying to suggest that this harm is greater to either gender!)
Who would compensate them? Whose benefit is it for?
is an excellent question that I actually do not want to answer,
or is it that “I do not really understand your questions.”? Or did my explanation allow you to understand that you didn’t want to answer, or...
Point the second—Hypothetically, if this:
the difference in average pay between women and men is mostly attributable to differences in ambition and time voluntarily spent at home with children.
is true, then gender pay inequities do have an innocuous explanation- namely, the above. Kaj_Sotala made no claims beyond that, certainly not to the extent of claiming the above statement is true in the real world.
This leads me to believe your point is not valid or valuable criticism. If you think I’m wrong, could you explain why?
Well… I highly doubt it, both because the original ‘confusion’ seemed blindingly obvious to me and because
I am trying to be clear about the fact that the ONLY part of this thread I care about was the use of the word ‘innocuous’. All these other questions are good questions that people are asking, and answering, for themselves, and for other people, every day. Which I have no quarrel with.
I do not want to answer these questions for other people. …
… that I actually do not want to answer, because noone has acknowledged that my point about the word innocuous is valid or valuable criticism.
indicates to me something other than “Oh, so that’s what that was about!” In fact, it seems more along the lines of “Your clarification was not needed because I was missing the point intentionally.”
But in the interests of being as charitable as possible, I have edited my reply.
Than you for making clear that you do not agree that my point is valid or valuable criticism.
My objection to the word choice of harmless is based on my feelings, which I have not fully examined, that there may be harm.
Point the second—Hypothetically, if this:
the difference in average pay between women and men is mostly attributable to differences in ambition and time voluntarily spent at home with children.
is true, then gender pay inequities do have an innocuous explanation- namely, the above. Kaj_Sotala made no claims beyond that, certainly not to the extent of claiming the above statement is true in the real world.
Hypothetically, I agree with you.
I think I am having the most objection, in the statement you quote, with the phrase ‘mostly attributable’. I can think of several other reasons that can and do account for a gender-based inequity, all possibly innocuous. The one that springs to mind is something to do with women and negotiation of payscale, but as I look for resource that can explain what I mean by that more clearly than I have managed to, I came across another interesting theory on wikipedia, that I had never heard of before. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equal_pay_for_women#Different_Studies_and_Economic_Theories
“They interpret their findings to suggest that employers are willing to pay more for white male employees because employers are customer driven and customers are happier with white male employees. They also suggest that what is required to solve the problem of wage inequality isn’t necessarily paying women more but changing customer biases.”
This difference does not seem so harmless. Do you agree?
the difference in average pay between women and men is mostly attributable to differences in ambition and time voluntarily spent at home with children.
is true, then gender pay inequities do have an innocuous explanation- namely, the above. Kaj_Sotala made no claims beyond that, certainly not to the extent of claiming the above statement is true in the real world.
Hypothetically, I agree with you.
I think this might be confusing pedanterrific because if I read you right above you don’t agree with him. I thought your position was similar to the one I made here that that explanation of pay inequality, even if true, is not innocuous because the reason why men and women make different choices about work and home life could be harmful social pressure, or some other reason that we don’t think people should have to face in an ideal world. But I could have misread you when you wrote this:
I don’t think I’d use the word innocuous with the example of this reason for this gender difference. If it is a rational choice, why don’t both genders make similar choices?
Mostly I was not sure what pedanterrific was arguing, but I asked him to clarify, and he did. I am often unintentionally funny to other people. Lately I am getting better at understanding what the ‘subversion of expectations’ I am committing.
I absolutely agree with your point, but I was not conscious of why the word innocuous bothered me when I made my comment, and I don’t actually know if I read your comments before this moment. I don’t always read every comment before I respond, and I don’t ‘notice’ consciously everything I do read. Confusions galore!
Yes, of course. That’s trivially true and not in dispute.
I still think you’re rather missing the point, however. I don’t see how it makes sense to object to the phrase ‘mostly attributable’ when that’s a premise of the hypothetical. Let’s look at the original comment in context:
E.g. I’ve often heard it claimed that the difference in average pay between women and men is mostly attributable to differences in ambition and time voluntarily spent at home with children. I haven’t looked at the matter enough to know if this is true. But if it is, then denying any population-level differences between men and women seems harmful, because it implies that something that actually has an innocuous explanation is because of discrimination.
That is, IF [the difference is mostly attributable to something innocuous], THEN [denying population-level differences seems harmful]. That’s all that was said. Kaj_Sotala never claimed the innocuous explanation was true.
Editeditedit: I apologize for my horrible social skills.
let me just say that ‘like, really?’ comes across as dismissive of all my efforts to explain what I care about, in the context of my original remark, and why I care about the word ‘innocuous’ in the hypothetical statement.
I am generous to assume that are not trying to crush my will to respond with irony, and are seriously confused.
But it is more difficult for me to maintain this generosity of spirit after you have already dismissed something relevant to the hypothetical argument and my objection to the word ‘innocuous’ as ‘trivialy true and not in dispute’.
And I am totally willing to maintain at least a pretense of generosity of spirit, because I have plenty of experience with losing my generosity of spirit, and I know that it keeps growing back.
But I wasn’t faking any enthusiasm or bewilderment before I read your comment with those two apparently dismissive word choices. “trivial” and “like”.
No, it set mine off too—I avoided the error only by paying attention to the tone and attitude of the rest of her comments (which make sarcasm coming from her [assuming her based on gender conventions around the phonetics of the handle] look very unlikely).
No, I am sure that they are normal, and partly because my mental problem which I have mentioned elsewhere, includes depression. In person, it is very hard to tell if a depressed person is sincere or sarcastic, I just wasn’t aware until now that this problem (I think call it ‘affect’?) is something I also ought to consider in a pure text situation.
In person I usually fake enthusiasm, but I am fortunately not that good at it. <--serious and funny, yet again. at least it was intentional.
I edited my previous comment to make my meaning clearer. Note that it’s only about that one quoted line.
you have already dismissed something relevant to the hypothetical argument and my objection to the word ‘innocuous’ as ‘trivialy true and not in dispute’.
“They interpret their findings to suggest that employers are willing to pay more for white male employees because employers are customer driven and customers are happier with white male employees. They also suggest that what is required to solve the problem of wage inequality isn’t necessarily paying women more but changing customer biases.”
describes a difference that is definitely not “harmless” no matter what the rest of your argument states. By “not in dispute” I meant “I agree with you, and was not aware that you thought we disagreed on this subject.”
E.g. I’ve often heard it claimed that the difference in average pay between women and men is mostly attributable to differences in ambition and time voluntarily spent at home with children. I haven’t looked at the matter enough to know if this is true. But if it is, then denying any population-level differences between men and women seems harmful, because it implies that something that actually has an innocuous explanation is because of discrimination.
One common explanation of harm and utilities is that the “real” or important utility function held by a human is that implied by the humans actions. If a human chooses A over B, that means to the human A has a higher value than B to the human. This runs us into problems, for example when humans choose B over C and C over A, but there is no agreed upon way to discuss the relationship of humans to utility functions. We just don’t know how to extract the human and cut the nonsense without cutting the human! This is despite extensively discussing extrapolate volition. One way to get people to actually choose consistently among A, B, and C is to teach them about this paradox, but let’s just say for our purposes here that it’s clearly not out of line to discuss people’s “true” preferences being something other than what they choose.
Vaniver: Ok: let’s suppose he intended the primary definition of innocuous, “not harmful.” If a choice is made voluntarily, then by the assumption of revealed preferences it is the least ‘harmful.’ If we forced women to choose with the same distribution that men do, then on net women would be worse off- i.e. harmed by our force.
Clarica: I think that calling the choice to spend more or less time doing financially unrecompensed work in the home an innocuous gender difference, is careless. The harms of the various choices have not been evaluated that well.
One issue is that language is flexible, and it is common to see “innocuous explanation” as a way of discussing the motives of a person causing the things the explanation explains, rather than according to the usual adjective-noun relationship where the adjective modifies the noun.
For example: a video teaching “how to fold a shirt” with the audio 50 decibels is a harmless explanation. The same video with the audio at 125 decibels is a harmful explanation.
No one argues that the explanation itself would have only good consequences, the discussion is instead what sort of harmlessness is meant instead. Whether the author’s intent is clearly that, if it is discovered that women’s actions alone cause the statistical difference, i) employers are doing no harm in the hypothetical case, or ii) if a similarly plausible interpretation is that no one is suffering harm, for had they chosen as men, there would be no disparity.
Context points to the first explanation as the best contrast with “discrimination”, what employers are allegedly doing, and what hypothetical evidence would clear them of, but it’s easy to see why someone intending the second point might have used the same words.
The sentence might be rewritten: “But if it is, then denying any population-level differences between men and women seems harmful, because it implies that something fully explained by innocuous behavior is because of discrimination.”
The principle of charity protects us in similar cases where we happen to only see one interpretation and it is the wrong one.
I feel like this is an accurate, thoughtful, and generous explanation of the confusion I have and the confusion I cause. If I could spend my few measly karma points upvoting this, I might!
After I read it, because it’s late, and I can not take it all in right now. And I’m grateful for the effort, and the clarity of the parts I already understand!
If I had downvoted it, it would be because I can’t really imagine reading “Who would compensate them?” and responding “Can you define ‘who’?” as a serious attempt at communication.
And you call yourself pedantic? There were a number of referents in my comment which could have applied, and while I usually feel at no disadvantage in a battle of wits, I have a mental problem that either renders me easily confused, or fully aware that I am not a mind reader.
This comment is supposed to be serious and funny. Can you guess which parts I think are funny, and why?
Actually, ‘this comment’ was self-referential. The comment you reviewed was intentionally serious, and unintentionally ridiculous. I get that a lot.
But ridiculous is funny, and I totally agree with your last judgement of funny, and wish I had noticed that it was funny, BEFORE I posted. I am trying to get comfortable with being accidentally funny.
I should really just stick with a pretense that everything funny I say is intentionally hilarious, instead of just occasionally patently ridiculous. Apparently.
Apparently so. Can you explain why it is interesting?
Edited to add: I assume you may be trying to explain what is interesting about my comments in the more serious and complicated response you may still be working on, but of which I have only seen the placeholder. I’d say that I can’t wait, but I have already had to...
In the self-referentially intentionally funny comment I make above, I was absolutely serious about having a mental problem. And about being easily confused. And about being painfully aware that I am not a mind reader. Absolutely intentionally serious, and, for a change, intentionally funny at the same time. Irony is LOST on me. or everybody else, and I have no way of telling which!
Someone (Eliezer?) once said something like: if you tell me exactly what it is that an Artificial Intelligence can’t do, I can build an AI to do exactly that. If a person who believes in a fundamental difference at that sort of level between machines and animals can precisely define something, a computer can follow that definition.
It doesn’t work quite as well here. But if someone gives a good enough answer for their question of “who”, with exactly why an animal wouldn’t count, or a computer, or a corporation, they may make their question so complicated that it only has one answer or no answers as asked.
Ah. I am abnormally careful about the question of ‘who would’ do something. People often take my serious suggestions as playful, and vice versa. I no longer recommend a new hairstyle to anyone because I have given this advice three times, it was always taken, and I only liked the results without qualification once.
I may be paranoid, but I do not like to worry about this. <-- also intentionally funny. I am trying to not to worry about whether it is true. <-- Also funny.
Heh, when arguing for the case that people should be careful with their wording, I’m challenged for a careless choice of wording. :-)
Innocuous in the sense of emerging from different-gendered people on average having different preferences and on average making different choices as a result. Me eating french fries every day, because I want to, is an innocous reason for eating french fries every day (though such behavior will probably cause health problems in the long term). Eating french fries every day because somebody pressures me into doing so, or because I genuinely can’t afford anything else, is a non-innocous reason.
I absolutely agree that there are many statistical differences between men and women, and trying to deny this is actually ludicrous, whether or not it is harmful!
However, I object to the word ludicrous, because while I agree that there are statistical (as well as biological and almost certainly evolutionarily-based cultural) differences between men and women, the assumption of harmlessness, based on that claim you’ve often heard, suggests that there is no bias involved other than personal choice. And personal choice is biased by so many other factors!
And, though I did not make this clear, I was not trying to suggest that the harm was one-sided.
The thing about bias was difficult for me to argue specifically until I explored the matter of pay inequity and the current state of research. Over the years I have heard a lot on the subject, which I do not remember that well.
Because though it is no trivial matter to me personally, personally, If I can’t identify a personal or cultural bias as actually causing me harm, I don’t get that excited about it. And frankly, if I haven’t identified what I should do about it, I try not to get exited about it if it is causing me harm. There are plenty of people in the world much more inclined than I to actually address the problems of gender-based pay inequities, which I think is a good thing.
It pretty much seems clear to me that a lot of men care more than women about getting a big pile of negotiable tokens. Statistical. Why women do less about getting a pile of negotiable tokens, I already understand. Some of this understanding of women may be visceral, or biological. I’m pretty sure most of it is pretty self-aware, or rational as well.
Why men care more I don’t understand as viscerally, but I am actually trying to understand better because I would like a bigger pile of negotiable tokens to play with. :)
What would be the context of the comment, and what sense of “equal” is implied?
Suppose lukeprog put it in the ancestral post.
For instance, I probably wouldn’t object to someone saying “men and women are equal” if it was clear from the context that they meant “men and women should have equal rights”. On the other hand, there are a variety of well-documented statistical differences between men and women, and trying to deny some of those might be harmful.
“Clear from the context” seems like the heart of the matter, here. If it can be clear from the context that when someone says “men and women are equal,” then mean the most sensible interpretation, then it seems similarly clear that a generalization with neither “some” nor “all” specified should be assumed to mean “some,” not “all.”
That’s still insufficient context: to be able to give a definite answer, I’d need something like the paragraph the sentence was contained in.
“Clear from the context” seems like the heart of the matter, here. If it can be clear from the context that when someone says “men and women are equal,” then mean the most sensible interpretation, then it seems similarly clear that a generalization wither neither “some” nor “all” specified should be assumed to mean “some,” not “all.”
Indeed. For what it’s worth, my prior for people misinterpreting “men and women are equal” is lower, though still not neglible, than my prior for people misinterpreting “all men want”. But again, depending on the context either interpretation for either sentence could be blindingly obvious, not obvious at all, or anything in between.
I would like to taboo the term “politically incorrect” in this comment, but I can’t find a short enough substitute with the same expressive power. I would like to make it more group-dependent, not outside-world-dependent. It is supposed to mean: something that a decent member of this group would hesitate to say, because the morality keepers of this group will obviously disagree.
“Taboo” itself actually sounds about right, although it carries connotations of low value that may not be what you’re going for.
Yeah, I’m familiar with Rationalist Taboo, and I was looking for a substitute for “politically incorrect” fitting the description provided. “Taboo”, in its sense of “culturally forbidden” rather than its sense of “party game about avoiding words”, is what I came up with. Sorry if that lacked clarity.
There are several reasons to play Rationalist Taboo, though; I’d assumed that the grandparent wanted to drop the phrase mainly because of its political loading (which seems to be causing some problems here), not because of any implicit assumptions or ambiguity of definition that needs to get aired out. In which case brevity would be no sin.
Precision is a way of fighting availability bias—if all you see is “women are shorter than men” because most women are in fact shorter than most men, then it can be hard to remember that there are women who are taller than most men.
I want for the people on this site who make declarative statements about groups of people they’re not in (especially when the implications shape their behavior toward members of that group)
If this was applied consistently for all low status groups I wouldn’t mind it.
I’m not saying I object (at least not in the way some have). What I’m implicitly refering to is that these kind of usage disputes only ever arise when it comes to gender relations.
Can’t speak for anyone else, but I’ve brought this up re: race and sexual orientation as well in conversations on this site. I don’t go looking for it, so the conversation usually has to be fairly current (ie, comments are showing up on the sidebar or it was recently posted to Discussion).
In general I don’t start conversations about such things here because I’m well aware my own beliefs and perspective on issues like this are in the minority on this site, and if there’s one thing I don’t need more of in my life it’s arguing with a population comprised mostly of wealthy, white Libertarian-esque cisgendered/heterosexual men whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot.
I’m much more apt to get involved in an existing conversation when some comment grabs my attention and I feel able to reply (or provoked to annoyance by it—that happens). I critique what passes into my attention, assuming I’ve get the energy and wherewithal to get into what will most likely be another unproductive argument about it (unproductive because apparently it just feels like mind-killing politics to many of the posters here, who don’t have some hands-on experience with being in a social minority and are not apt to readily grasp the difference between “I am angry/hurt by this AND think it is incorrect” and “my disagreement is purely emotional”).
arguing [...] whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot.
Downvoted for formulating the question in a way that treats vaguely defined classes of ideological transgressions as having an independent Platonic existence, implying that their properties should be discussed as if they were independently existing elements of reality, rather than a matter of definition. (And in this case there isn’t even anything resembling a standard, precise, clearly stated, and consistently used definition.)
Downvoted for formulating the question in a way that treats vaguely defined classes of ideological
transgressions as having an independent Platonic existence
Platonic?
If I step on your toe unintentionally, and you’re in pain, just because I don’t feel that pain (it wasn’t my toe) doesn’t mean that any harm done occurred either in a Platonic sense or not at all. It sure as heck doesn’t mean that you’re an ideologically-motivated, irrational zealot for getting mad when my response is anything other than “Whoops, sorry.”
I do not think we share sufficient premises to make discussion worthwhile.
Whether you feel pain or not is a fact. It’s territory, not map. Whether someone is racist/sexist depends on definitions. These are categories—which are map, not territory.
I’d guess that whatever value is derived by arguing over whether someone is racist or sexist can be produced better by tabooing those words, and arguing more specifically over what the specific claim is (“would his words be offensive to a significant number of member of such group” “is he trying to increase his own group’s relative power/privilege over the other group”, “does he believe in an innate inferior moral worth for that group”, etc, etc)
Back in the days when incorrect beliefs about the trinity could get you into trouble, it became heresy to doubt that Jesus was god. Shortly thereafter some people stopped believing he was man, which in due course also became heresy. Much drama ensued on the question of whether Christ was cosubstantial with god, or consubstantial with god, and whether the holy ghost proceeded from Christ, or God, or both, and whether God was three or one or both.
Discussions of racism are apt to develop a similar character.
On a conservative blog, the blogger will say something politically incorrect, which in less right wing circles would be deemed “racist”. Then one of the commenters too plainly says something horribly racist, which is clearly implied by and logically follows from the original post on which he is commenting. The right wing blogger, of course, firmly denies his post has such horrid implications, denounces the commenter as disgustingly racist, and bans him.
Back in the days when incorrect beliefs about the trinity could get you into trouble, it became heresy to doubt that Jesus was god. Shortly thereafter some people stopped believing he was man, which in due course also became heresy. Much drama ensued on the question of whether Christ was cosubstantial with god, or consubstantial with god, and whether the holy ghost proceeded from Christ, or God, or both, and whether God was three or one or both.
Discussions of racism are apt to develop a similar character.
However, in the historical discussions of the Trinity, the opposing sides at least made it clear what exact beliefs they considered as orthodox and which heretical, and spelled out the criteria for orthodox beliefs and their official justifications at length, always ready to elaborate still further if any details remained ambiguous. (However arbitrary and illogical these official justifications may have been.)
In contrast, in the modern discussions of racism, sexism, and other ideological transgressions, it is never spelled out explicitly and clearly what exact beliefs one is supposed to profess to remain orthodox. Rather, there exists a pretense that there is a certain set of beliefs that will be accepted by all people who are not malevolent or delusional—and if you ask for a precise and clear statement of what exactly these beliefs are (and let alone how they are justified), this is by itself considered as strong evidence of ideological transgression, since only a malcontent would ask so many annoying questions about things that are supposed to be plainly obvious to sane and honest people.
A clear and explicit list of official doctrine that it is forbidden to question, such as the those pronounced by various parties in historical trinitarian disputes, is at least honest and upfront in what it demands. What we see today however is the utterly mendacious and delusional insistence that the official doctrine is a product of pure rationality and free thinking that can be denied only out of insanity or malicious dishonesty.
On the other hand, the long lists of condemned theses, censured theses, and prohibited articles of the thirteenth century gave no real indication of what was not condemned, not censured, and not prohibited.
I think that the differences you perceive are because the analogies you and sam0345 make to “religious heresy” are really really bad ones. Christ wasn’t truly around to be offended or not offended if someone got his nature wrong. Demanding adherence to a particular theology was basically just a demand by the church for complete monopoly of thinking. Disagreements about the nature of Christ were effectively attacks on the authority of the church.
The best modern-day analogy to such issues of religious heresy, are probably the intra-Communist squabbles about Stalin and Trotsky and Mao and revisionism and whatever...
But in regards to racism and sexism though, it’s not about lowering the status of institutions like the Church or the Communist Party, but about lowering the status of groups of actual people. It’s a much more… decentralized defection, and similarly it gets a much more decentralized punishment—in Western states there’s no single “punishing authority” as there used to be in Communist regimes for defections against communist ideology, or there still is in Theocratic regimes for defections against theocratic ideology.
You are presenting an oversimplified picture in both cases, and the contrast is definitely not so clear-cut.
First, the christological and other theological controversies were often only part of much broader political, ideological, ethnic, and other conflicts, involving all sorts of parties and factions both within and outside the church hierarchy. Sometimes there was also a strong populist element—during the monophysite controversy, for example, there were plenty of spontaneous riots and pogroms. Therefore, in these controversies, the power and status of many groups and individuals was at stake, not just the interests of the Church leadership.
Second, the modern repercussions of various ideological transgressions are by no means limited to spontaneous reactions by people who feel directly targeted. For start, there is a complicated and non-obvious system that determines which groups are entitled to such reaction, so that their outrage will be supported and the offenders condemned by the respectable opinion, and which groups are OK to denigrate, so that protesting will only lower their status still further. Then, we also have a network of official intellectual institutions that have a de facto monopoly of respectable and impactful thinking, and the reaction of these institutions to various ideological transgressions involves many elements far beyond direct and spontaneous outrage of those who are (supposed to be) directly targeted.
But aside from all this, my main point is the contrast between two kinds of systems that is independent of the issues you raise:
A system in which certain beliefs are clearly spelled out as official dogma that it is forbidden to question, so if you’re accused of heresy, you can at least demand a clear statement of what exact official dogma you have contradicted—and if you have in fact steered clear of any matters of official dogma in your writings and utterances, this is admissible as a valid defense. (Historically, this was typically the case for people accused of heresy by the Church tribunals, though of course things varied a lot in different places and times and there were certainly instances of corruption and railroading, like in any other legal system.)
A system in which there is official pretense that there is no dogma whatsoever, that everyone is supposed to be a skeptical free thinker about everything, and that imposing some sort of official dogma would be the vilest tyranny imaginable—so that when you are accused of some ideological transgression, it is automatically assumed that your statements must be due to either disingenuous malice or some crazy delusion, since the respectable opinion is considered to be a product of pure rational thinking, as an assumption built into the system. So rather than having clearly outlined boundaries of what you may or may not say, you must pretend to be a free thinker unencumbered by any official dogma, while at the same time strictly adhering to the de facto official dogma—which is only more sweeping and onerous because it is so vague and not stated openly.
It seems to me that system (2) is hardly an improvement over (1).
But in regards to racism and sexism though, it’s not about lowering the status of institutions like the Church or the Communist Party, but about lowering the status of groups of actual people.
Surely the communist party would say something similar—and indeed it did: Trotsky complained that certain speech was a violation of freedom of speech because that speech oppressed the proletariat.
Surely the communist party would say something similar
I’m sure it would, because after all that was the prime characteristic of social-fascist regimes—claiming supposedly egalitarian-minded ideas for the pursuit of in-actuality the establishment of a new ruling class/aristocracy based on party membership. Much like corporate-capitalism propagandizes itself as meritocratic instead (while trying to form a ruling class based on control of stocks and so forth).
I made an image of this some time ago:
This of course doesn’t mean that all egalitarian ideas exist to support the communist party elite, any more than it means that all meritocratic ideas are there to support the corporate elites.
Surely the communist party would say something similar
I’m sure it would, because after all that was the prime characteristic of social-fascist regimes—claiming supposedly egalitarian-minded ideas for the pursuit of in-actuality the establishment of a new ruling class/aristocracy based on party membership
And is that not what is happening in America today?
I don’t think the idea can be written off so easily. This of course gets into all sorts of extremely charged issues, but in any case, considering the historical record of egalitarian ideas in general, surely it would not be rational to take the presently dominant egalitarian ideas at face value automatically.
Not to mention that for anyone familiar with the standard OB/LW motives, it should be straightforward to ask about the signaling and status issues involved. Should it be controversial to propose that, perhaps, egalitarianism is not about equality?
Cuba had obvious, striking, and severe inequality, with a strong element of racial inequality. Yet back before the fall of the Soviet Union, and for some time thereafter, visitors to Cuba tended to not only congratulate Cuba on its wonderful equality, but also themselves on being able to perceive that wonderful equality, that someone less sensitive might have failed to see.
During the hungry ghosts famine in China, J.K. Galbraith observed “If there was any famine in China it was not evident in the kitchen”. The kitchen to which he refers being the kitchen of the luxury hotel his hosts provided him.
You seem to be getting into thorny theoretical questions about the nature of modern Western culture and political ideology. I don’t really have much to add on that point.
I was just talking about a simple question of fact: that is, most Republicans would consider the appellation of ‘egalitarian’ to be an insult.
Edit: Actually, you know what? This is straight-up mindkilling, right here. So how about I just retract everything I contributed to this travesty of a ‘conversation’ and take extra care not to get sucked into this kind of thing again.
In communism, political incorrectness might get you shot, but far more likely might be taken into account when you next sought a holiday or promotion. For the most part, the enforcement of political correctness under communism was every bit as decentralized as the enforcement in the US.
Similarly with thirteenth century punishment for heresy, the main punishment being that one was unlikely to receive tenure. No one respectable got tortured or burned at the stake, though Roger Bacon got solitary confinement on bread and water.
And the enforcement in the US is ultimately highly centralized. The reason your boss will fire you for wrongthink is that when his business gets charged with racism, all his employees will be scrutinized for wrongthink. Most discrimination charges do not involve an employer calling a member of a protected group a derogatory name, but rather an employee revealing unapproved views unaware that there are spies present who will rat on him. A member of a protected group heard of the unapproved views—in some cases he would had to have been listening at keyholes to have discovered the unapproved views and have his feelings hurt, and I suspect that in fact these unapproved views were only discovered during the disclosure phase, and the complainant could hypothetically have heard them at the keyhole, rather than actually heard them.
For the most part, enforcement of political correctness under communism worked in exactly the same way as in the US—through employment and academic admissions.
I’d guess that whatever value is derived by arguing over whether someone is racist or sexist can be produced better by tabooing those words, and arguing more specifically over what the specific claim is (“would his words be offensive to a significant number of member of such group” “is he trying to increase his own group’s relative power/privilege over the other group”, “does he believe in an innate inferior moral worth for that group”, etc, etc)
I notice a glaring omission from your list of questions. Namely “are his words if interpreted as a factual claim and/or argument true and/or valid”
I agree these are helpful paraphrases—but as a practical matter increasing the burden on the person trying to point out the offense or marginalization isn’t necessarily a good idea since it often very difficult for people to call their friends and acquaintances on such matters. For example, I imagine it is very difficult for a black person surrounded by white people to call out behavior that makes them feel marginalized—there is a great deal of social pressure against this. In normal social contexts a minority should be free to express how something makes them feel without being expected to enter into an extended defense of the matter.
Here at Less Wrong, I almost always translate “is x-ist” in the way you suggest and think it is worthwhile where the goal of the discussion is truth seeking (I’m not a member of many relevant minorities, though)
Yes, Platonic—and it’s easy to demonstrate that it follows in a straightforward manner from your phrasing.
To stick with the (relatively) less incendiary of the two, consider the notion of “sexism.” Discussing whether some institution, act, or claim is “sexist” makes sense only if at least one of these two conditions applies:
There is some objectively existing Platonic idea of “sexism,” so that whether something is “sexist” is ultimately a question of fact that must have an objectively correct yes or no answer.
There is a precise and agreed-upon definition of “sexism,” so that whether something is “sexist” is, assuming agreement on questions of fact, ultimately a question of logic (i.e. whether the given facts satisfy the definition), which also must have an objectively correct yes or no answer.
Now, the option (2) is clearly out of the question. This is because the term inherently implies that any “sexist” claim does not belong to the set of reasonable and potentially correct claims and a “sexist” institution or act is outside the bounds of what is defensible and acceptable—while at the same time nobody has ever given any definition of “sexism” that wouldn’t be either so restrictive as to make most of the common usage of the term inconsistent with the definition, or so broad as to make many reasonable and defensible claims and institutions “sexist,” thus again contradicting this essential implication of the term. Also, the very fact that you talk about “arguing [...] whether or not you can be [...] sexist [...] without [property X]” implies that there exists some Platonic idea of “sexism,” since otherwise it would be a trivial question of whether property X is included in the definition.
Also, the very fact that you talk about “arguing [...] whether or not you can be [...] sexist [...] without [property X]” implies that there exists some Platonic idea of “sexism,” since otherwise it would be a trivial question of whether property X is included in the definition.
It is trivial. Jandila’s definition of sexism and racism does not include the speaker being a bigot as a necessary criterion. Now, I often complain to my anti-subordination activisty friends that a lot of people don’t realize their definitions of racism and sexism don’t imply that. It’s a problem since people tend to get more defensive than they need to be when someone points out something they did or said that is racist, sexist, anti- gay, etc. But people getting defensive after they know these words don’t imply bigotry really is silly. And yet it still happens—which is why Jandila doesn’t always have the patience to deal with it.
That’s because words like “bigot, racist, sexist, anti- gay” are frequently used to sneak in conotations that the argument in question (and by extension the person making it) is somehow immoral and can be dismissed without looking at its validity, or at the very least requires us to engage in motivated continuation until the argument has been “rationally” dismissed. If you and Jandila don’t mean to sneak in these connotations, say so; however, in that case you should probably pick a word that doesn’t have these connotations in common usage.
I didn’t mind being told my behavior pattern matches with that of bad people’s by people who I thought think probabilistically.
If someone were to see me handcuffed in the back of a police car with blood all over me, they should think me more likely to have killed someone than if they hadn’t seen that. If they concluded I killed someone because they saw me there, they would just be stupid.
All I really need is for two (Asch conformity) of twelve regular people who accept stupid arguments to accept arguments I am not guilty, or one nut juror, or one intelligent juror.
I am reticent to discuss this without there being any object level issue—I don’t trust either side’s claims about how these words are ‘frequently used’. I would be comfortable evaluating a specific instance of the use of these words but I suspect discussion of how they tend to be used will just leave people insisting on generalities that flatter their own ideology. Both sides have ways of framing the other’s rhetorical techniques as harmful and destructive to honest communication. And both sides are often oblivious to what the other side is saying. Usually when words like sexist and racist are thrown out the users usually have reasons why they used those words instead of others despite (or I guess sometimes because of) connotations. But again, those reasons can’t be evaluated in abstract.
I suspect discussion of how they tend to be used will just leave people insisting on generalities that flatter their own ideology.
I think that the burden of proof is on those criticizing authors for using particular language.
But again, those reasons can’t be evaluated in abstract.
It ought to disqualify the prosecutors from bringing such cases if there can’t be evidence to support them, so it seems to me you’re on a “side” if you think that.
I think that the burden of proof is on those criticizing authors for using particular language.
Both sides are criticizing the other for using particular language. Bob says x. Susan says saying x is racist (criticizing Bob). Bob says saying something is racist sneaks in connotations (criticizing Susan).
It ought to disqualify the prosecutors from bringing such cases if there can’t be evidence to support them, so it seems to me you’re on a “side” if you think that.
I don’t know what you’re talking about here.
Edit: If I understand you right I guess I don’t see a justification for ‘burden of proof’ type analyses except in literal court rooms. There usually isn’t a reason for them other than presumption and status quo bias.
Both sides are criticizing the other for using particular language.
The criticisms are importantly different.
“Susan says saying x is racist.”
There is nothing wrong with that statement, but “arguing [...] whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot,” is confused, though not necessarily accusatory.
“Bob says saying something is racist sneaks in connotations.”
Bob is saying something not confused, but coherent and accusatory. “If you and Jandila don’t mean to sneak in these connotations, say so;” is unfair. Bob has to address the argument as if those connotations were not intended, even if they probably were (in his mind), or weren’t but probably are so misinterpreted by others (in his models of them), he can’t decline to address the actual argument unless he has overwhelming evidence that it was designed primarily to manipulate and not substantially to present evidence.
If it’s easier for Bob to show the argument is dishonest rather than refute it, it’s fine to let him do that if he feels it is better for some reason, and I don’t think Bob owes an explanation of how the argument was wrong or even an honest attempt to try and understand it, depending on how sinuous and sinuous it was.
Susan’s statement isn’t supposed to be a counter argument, just an argument. (When I described the situation above I could have as easily started with “Bob does something racist” instead of “says. She may or may not have a propositional disagreement with what Bob said.)
[And now we have two threads about Bob. He is apparently both a racist and terrible with women.]
It relies on the implication that the user of the word frowns on racisms and that other people ought to as well. This is different from the connotation that someone who does something racist must be intentionally bigoted or some kind of secret white supremacist. The difference is that the first is merely a normative implication that is obvious to everyone while the second suggests additional beliefs about Bob that are being snuck in but not officially defended by anyone.
It relies on the implication that the user of the word frowns on racisms and that other people ought to as well.
That’s still sneaking in connotations unless deserving to be frowned upon is part of the definition of “racism”. However, in that case Susan needs to establish that the action and/or argument deserves to be frowned upon in addition to satisfying the other parts of the definition of racism to justify her claim that the action and/or argument is indeed “racist”. Notice that what you called “defensiveness” in the comment that started this sub-thread is simply Bob pointing out that she hasn’t done so.
Essentially Susan is trying to argue that Bob’s action and/or argument is racist and hence by definition bad. This argument runs into the problem Eliezer discusses in that article.
Essentially Susan is trying to argue that Bob’s action and/or argument is racist and hence by definition bad.
Too many guards were facing the wrong direction until now.
The problem isn’t so much that connotations may sneak in, it’s that relevance may sneak out. That’s why I said some things were confused and not even an argument: the key step was that a label applied and everything with that label was invalid, and that thinking something is an argument doesn’t make it so be it sentences or even a string of arbitrary characters, and so on.
It’s too difficult and too costly in terms of accusations made and inferences drained from language to zealously guard against bad connotations.
That’s still sneaking in connotations unless deserving to be frowned upon is part of the definition of “racism”.
No, it’s merely an assumption in polite society. Bob is free to say that he doesn’t care that he’s being racist—but that is not what he is being defensive about.
The defensiveness is in response to the connotation which Jandila at the very start of the thread disclaimed:
if there’s one thing I don’t need more of in my life it’s arguing with a population comprised mostly of wealthy, white Libertarian-esque cisgendered/heterosexual men whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot.
There is a connotation that doing something racist or sexist means you’re intentionally trying to hurt people, that you’re a bad person instead of just making a mistake or being ignorant. When I say there is an implication to the word “racism” that my activist friends aren’t paying attention to I’m talking about that not the implication that a racist statement shouldn’t be said. Note, those activist friends consider everyone a racist, themselves included.
There is a connotation that doing something racist or sexist means you’re intentionally trying to hurt people, that you’re a bad person instead of just making a mistake or being ignorant.
You’re still trying to sneak in connotations, notice how you seem to be trying to exclude the possibility that a statement you describe as racist could actually be true, or that an action you describe as racist could actually be rational.
Also, why are you getting so defensive about my pointing out that you’re sneaking in connotations? There is a connotation that sneaking in connotations or exhibiting some other bias means you’re intentionally trying to mislead people, that you’re a bad person instead of just making a mistake or being ignorant. Note, people on lesswrong consider everyone biased, themselves included.
You’re still trying to sneak in connotations, notice how you seem to be trying to exclude the possibility that a statement you describe as racist could actually be true, or that an action you describe as racist could actually be rational.
I don’t notice how I seem to be doing it, actually.
Also, why are you getting so defensive about my pointing out that your sneaking in connotations? There is a connotation that sneaking in connotations or exhibiting some other bias means you’re intentionally trying to mislead people, that you’re a bad person instead of just making a mistake or being ignorant. Note, people on lesswrong consider everyone biased, themselves included.
Clever. It’s actually a good analogy. I’m really not getting defensive, just frustrated that you seem to be misunderstanding me (which is weird because I thought your original comment understood me perfectly).
You’re still trying to sneak in connotations, notice how you seem to be trying to exclude the possibility that a statement you describe as racist could actually be true, or that an action you describe as racist could actually be rational.
I don’t notice how I seem to be doing it, actually.
The statement I quoted:
There is a connotation that doing something racist or sexist means you’re intentionally trying to hurt people, that you’re a bad person instead of just making a mistake or being ignorant.
seems to imply that the only reason one would make a “racist” statement is either out of a desire to hurt people or out of ignorance.
Clever. It’s actually a good analogy.
One difference is that the definition of bias as used on lw does explicitly include the requirement that they provide incorrect results, as such I’ve been providing you with links to the relevant lesswrong articles.
I’m really not getting defensive,
One reason I did that is so you could see how annoying arguments of the form:
“Why are you getting so defensive about my accusing you of bad thing X, X doesn’t imply worse thing Y?”
“may subjectively be considered a counterargument but that doesn’t make it important. The statement was made because it was intended to make a certain point, even though its mechanism was to exclude things from consideration based on a labeling criteria too many steps removed from truth.”
Btw, Could you provide your definition of “bigot”? I’ve gotten a vague idea of what you mean by the word from context, but I’d like to see your formulation. (Note: be prepared to explain why being a “bigot” is obviously a “very bad thing”.)
The predominant usage in modern English refers to persons hostile to those of differing sex, race, ethnicity, religion or spirituality, nationality, language, inter-regional prejudice, gender and sexual orientation, age, homelessness, various medical disorders particularly behavioral disorders and addictive disorders.
(Note: be prepared to explain why being a “bigot” is obviously a very bad thing”.)
I am not so prepared—though it doesn’t seem especially controversial to me I am vaguely open to an argument that it isn’t obvious. But I don’t see why I should be expected to explain why.
The predominant usage in modern English refers to persons hostile to those of differing sex, race, ethnicity, religion or spirituality, nationality, language, inter-regional prejudice, gender and sexual orientation, age, homelessness, various medical disorders particularly behavioral disorders and addictive disorders.
So if I believe that, say, religion X is wrong and its teachings are immoral, do I qualify as a bigot under this definition?
Thats a unique example in that definition, that, in retrospect I should have perhaps left out. Unlike the other groupings religion partly consists in beliefs and values which I think it is often important to be hostile to. Those beliefs and values are closely tied to the culture of a religion which I don’t think people should be hostile to. I would not call someone a bigot for criticizing, mocking or insulting the beliefs and values associated with a particular religion. Doing the same to the people themselves or the culture, purposefully, and not the result of merely being uninformed or temporarily blinded would make a person a bigot.
Obviously it’s specific contents are political and I don’t necessarily think it is complete (or as we seen without mistakes)-- but the criteria for an ideal list is something like ‘classes of people that agents cannot help but be members of’.
Yeah. It’s a mess of a hard problem. Thats why I try not to talk about it here because nobody is good at talking about it rationally. I’m not defending every instance of someone calling something racist, sexist etc. I’m not defending everything the people who tend to do it nor the list of groups they do it for.
That being the case I don’t think the solution is to deny the harms people are talking about when they complain about racism, sexism etc. And it’s going to get talked about at some point just like all politics.
That being the case I don’t think the solution is to deny the harms people are talking about when they complain about racism, sexism etc.
Nor is the solution to suppress discussion of statements that could be construed as bigoted. Even statements about race and IQ, or whether homosexuality is a sexual deviance.
To be fare, the main problem on LessWrong, as opposed to the world in general, is people engaging in motivated stopping and motivated continuation when discussing these topics in an attempt to avoid being sexist (for some reason race is less of a problem) and/or bigots.
Does this question have empirical content that constrains my anticipated experiences? Or is it just a value judgment?
I don’t think there is a lot of room or reason to discuss terminal or near-terminal value judgments. I find that criticism along the lines of “Stop valuing that, it’s a character defect” is a perfectly reasonable response to terminal value judgments that I disagree with (though I try not to penalize people for value disagreement here since people with bad values can still be insightful about factual matters).
With something like race and IQ I don’t think they should be suppressed and haven’t tried to suppress them (I have comments elsewhere lamenting such suppression). But do think it is reasonable to expect those conversations to occur at a higher level than they have so far. For whatever reason the most vocal advocates of genetic inheritance as an explanation for the race IQ gap have been worse than average commenters. A while back I linked to an article Steve Hsu wrote on the subject, he showed up and there was briefly a really good back and forth on the subject. But for the most part discussion of the subject here consists of anecdotal evidence, baseless claims and people on both sides paying no attention to the relevant studies or population genetics. It is worthwhile in these cases, I think, for people to do what they can to avoid pattern matching with something designed to demean or oppress people. Both to avoid hurting people unnecessarily and to avoid triggering mind-killing. You don’t have to sound like George Cuvier to argue for a genetic explanation of the race IQ-gap.
Edit: Though apparently we can’t even talk about talking it without the both of us being downvoted.
About race and IQ, that really hasn’t been a problem here.
But for the most part discussion of the subject here consists of anecdotal evidence, baseless claims and people on both sides paying no attention to the relevant studies or population genetics.
Part of the problem is how politicized population genetics has become.
I should probably have listed as an example something like talking about PUA and whether it works, because that has caused problems here, despite being less controversial in the outside world.
Edit: Though apparently we can’t even talk about talking it without the both of us being downvoted.
The only thing that offended me was the one value judgment in the bunch:
the behaviors associated with the pederastic/dominating classical style are entangled with abuse and degradation in a way that can only be described as evil
And I’m not offended on behalf of homosexuals but on behalf of BDSMers and kinky people who take those styles and practice them, but only between consenting adults. The rest of the piece, I think, exhibited a lot of ignorance about modern homosexual and heterosexual sex and desire and an overconfidence in historical records about romantic homosexuality. But I think you might be surprised at how similar his point is to that made by some radical queer theorists I’ve read.
They exist, but they’re mostly all tangled up in whatever hybrid of Marxism and/or postmodernism is in vogue. Add in a sprinkling of half-understood genetics, evolution, and evolutionary psychology, and it’s just a monstrous headache every paragraph.
The one I have in mind is Lee Edelman. He quotes Hegel a lot. He does philosophy from an English department and works in post-structuralism and, wait for it, psychoanalytic theory. Probably not Less Wrong’s cup of tea. He does show gay porn in his lectures, though.
Anyway, he critiques what he calls “reproductive futurism”, by which he means the norms and values that serve to continue civilization in the traditional sense: “The children are our future”, the fact that political appeals on behalf of children are impossible to refuse, heterosexual marriage, the nuclear family, and the entire political edifice he sees as built up around the idea. He sees the figure of the queer person as someone left out of this social order. He suggests that rather than (or maybe in addition to) fighting for the right to join in the social order—through joining the military openly, gay marriage, gay adoption etc. gays and lesbians should resist the entirety of reproductive futurism.
He positively quotes conservatives for accurately revealing just how it is queers lie outside the established social order. I suspect he might see the “romantic homosexuality” style in the above linked blog post as acquiescence to reproductive futurism.
[That make sense to anyone? Just trying to translate the ideas into something reasonable sounding.]
“The children are our future”, the fact that political appeals on behalf of children are impossible to refuse, heterosexual marriage, the nuclear family, and the entire political edifice he sees as built up around the idea. He sees the figure of the queer person as someone left out of this social order. He suggests that rather than (or maybe in addition to) fighting for the right to join in the social order—through joining the military openly, gay marriage, gay adoption etc. gays and lesbians should resist the entirety of reproductive futurism.
Even if they succeed in that goal all they’ll do is cause the affected culture to evolve to extinction.
[That make sense to anyone? Just trying to translate the ideas into something reasonable sounding.]
This is more or less what conservatives have been accusing the gay-rights movement of being a cover for since day one.
apparently we can’t even talk about talking it without the both of us being downvoted.
Many comments like this one get net upvotes. Are you concerned with total or net votes? What are your net votes from such discussions? How possible would it be for you to reshape downvoted-type comments into upvoted-type comments, particularly because any one downvoted comment is unlikely to have received much of your editing attention?
both sides
Comments expressing the lament of “people on both sides” are likely to be downvoted by me. I have many similar loose heuristics, such as “vote down people arguing by definition”, “vote up people changing their mind”, “vote up people citing sources”, “vote down people who do not apply the principle of charity”, and “vote up comments in which people correctly use the word ‘literally’”.
You’re unlikely to avoid tripping any if you make multiple comments, but I think each is fair and generally the type of content I want to see gets communicated. Consequently I suggest being less concerned by total downvotes, even if your only other change is to be more concerned with net downvotes. It’s not really supposed to be possible to avoid tripping any wire any reader has.
But I don’t see you getting net downvotes, so I’m not sure if that is instead your complaint...because that would be weird, as getting a near balance of favorable and unfavorable reviews isn’t too harsh a form of censorship.
I’m concerned not with my karma total but with the net-negative karma score for individual comments. A net negative karma for a comment signals that Less Wrong does not want to see that comment. When I see net negative comments I try to figure out why. For any one comment there are lots of possible explanations for downvoting. But when I see a trend that suggests downvoting heuristics I think are bad I sometimes publicly lament those heuristics. For example, I see a lot of bad pattern matching downvoting where people say things that unexamined resemble theistic apologist arguments. Taking any position that could be considered political also seems to be subject to downvoting. Especially when that position is inconsistent with the values of the local demographic cluster. Laments of downvote heuristics seems to be a rather unpopular comment type as well. These heuristics have a chilling effect on the discussions of those subjects and partly explain Eugine’s complaint:
To be fare, the main problem on LessWrong, as opposed to the world in general, is people engaging in motivated stopping and motivated continuation when discussing these topics in an attempt to avoid being sexist (for some reason race is less of a problem) and/or bigots.
Comments expressing the lament of “people on both sides” are likely to be downvoted by me.
Fair enough as a heuristic, though I’ll note I made it pretty clear which side I thought was worse in the preceding sentences. But don’t worry about your downvote- the heuristic you used was fine by me.
Laments of downvote heuristics seems to be a rather unpopular comment type as well.
Laments of downvote heuristics seem to be about why the complainer’s immediately preceding comments were downvoted.
How often are such complaint framed as laments that political allies were downvoted, much less neutrals or opponents?
If everyone writing a comment of content type X also always added spam links, I would downvote overconfident speculation about why people don’t like content X and how that makes them bad people.
But when I see a trend that suggests downvoting heuristics I think are bad I sometimes publicly lament those heuristics. For example, I see a lot of bad pattern matching downvoting where people say things that unexamined resemble theistic apologist arguments. Taking any position that could be considered political also seems to be subject to downvoting.
Outside of threads I’m personally involved in, I try to downvote any comment which seems detrimental to the overall signal-to-noise ratio on LW. Most often that means posts which are statistically illiterate, incoherent, obviously biased, or poorly written, which I imagine should be uncontroversial. Beyond content and style, though, it’s also possible for a post’s framing to lower the signal-to-noise ratio through a variety of knock-on effects.
Usually this happens by way of halo effects and their negative-affect equivalent (let’s call that a miasma effect, if it lacks a proper name): arguments matching religious apologia too closely, for example, tend to trigger a cluster of negative associations in our largely atheistic audience that prime it for confrontation even if the content itself is benign. Likewise for comments with political framing or drawing unwisely from political examples. I don’t usually click the downvote button on comments like these until there’s evidence of them actually causing problems, but that’s sufficiently common that I still end up burning a lot of votes on them.
I submit that this isn’t a bad heuristic. It’s one that shouldn’t be necessary if we were all free from emotive priming effects, but we clearly aren’t, and exposing ourselves to many sources of them isn’t going to help us get rid of the problem; in the meantime, discouraging such comments seems like a useful way of keeping the shouting down.
If I believe it’s better for people not to have behavioral disorders or/and addictive disorders develop a treatment and encourage people with said disorders to take it, am I being hostile? What if I do the same w.r.t. homosexuality?
BTW, if the answer to both those questions is “no”, I have no further problem with the definition.
Treating someone like an enemy. Shrug. I don’t have a clear bright line or anything, the amount and intensity of bigotry someone must exhibit before I’m comfortable calling them a bigoted person is pretty high.
If I believe it’s better for people not to have behavioral disorders or/and addictive disorders develop a treatment and encourage people with said disorders to take it am I being hostile? What if I do the same w.r.t. homosexuality?
In both cases it depends on why you want people to take the treatment.
We’re now very far from what was a pretty contingent defense of another commenter’s position and I don’t especially enjoy the topic...
Replace “sexism” by “X”. Do you think this alternative is still valid?
Of course it is still valid, unless X corresponds directly to some observable and clearly identifiable element of physical reality, so that its existence is not Platonic, but physically real. Obviously it wouldn’t make sense to discuss whether someone has, say, committed theft if there didn’t exist a precise and agreed-upon definition of what counts as theft—or otherwise we would be hunting for some objectively existing Platonic idea of “theft” in order to see whether it applies.
Now of course, in human affairs no definition is perfectly precise, and there will always be problematic corner cases where there may be much disagreement. This precision is ultimately a matter of degree. However, to use the same example again, when people are accused of theft, in the overwhelming majority of cases, the only disagreement is whether the facts of the accusation are correct, and it’s only very rarely that even after the facts are agreed upon, there is significant disagreement over whether what happened counts as theft. In contrast, when people are accused of sexism, a discussion almost always immediately starts about whether what they did was really and truly “sexist,” even when there is no disagreement at all about what exactly was said or done.
Of course it is still valid, unless X corresponds directly to some observable and clearly identifiable element of physical reality, so that its existence is not Platonic, but physically real. Obviously it wouldn’t make sense to discuss whether someone has, say, committed theft if there didn’t exist a precise and agreed-upon definition of what counts as theft—or otherwise we would be hunting for some objectively existing Platonic idea of “theft” in order to see whether it applies.
Of course? There must be a miscommunication.
Do you think it makes sense to discuss, say, intelligence, friendship or morality? Do you think these exist either as physically real things or Platonic ideas, or can you supply precise and agreed-upon definitions for them?
I don’t count any of my three examples physically real in the sense of being a clearly identifiable part of physical reality. Of course they reduce to physical things at the bottom, but only in the trivial sense in which everything does. Knowing that the reduction exists is one thing, but we don’t judge things as intelligent, friendly or moral based on their physical configuration, but on higher-order abstractions. I’m not expecting us to have a disagreement here. I wouldn’t consider any of the examples a Platonic idea either. Our concepts and intuitions do not have their source in some independently existing ideal world of perfections. Since you seemed to point to Platonism as a fallacy, we probably don’t disagree here either.
So I’m led to expect that you think that to sensibly discuss whether a given behaviour is intelligent, friendly or moral, we need to be able to give precise definitions for intelligence, friendship and morality. But I can only think that this is fundamentally misguided: the discussions around these concepts are relevant precisely because we do not have such definitions at hand. We can try to unpack our intuitions about what we think of as a concept, for example by tabooing the word for it. But this is completely different from giving a definition.
However, to use the same example again, when people are accused of theft, in the overwhelming majority of cases, the only disagreement is whether the facts of the accusation are correct, and it’s only very rarely that even after the facts are agreed upon, there is significant disagreement over whether what happened counts as theft. In contrast, when people are accused of sexism, a discussion almost always immediately starts about whether what they did was really and truly “sexist,” even when there is no disagreement at all about what exactly was said or done.
This only reflects on the easiest ways of making or defending against particular kinds of accusations, not at all on the content of the accusations. Morality is similar to sexism in this respect, but it still makes sense to discuss morality without being a Platonist about it or without giving a precise agreed-upon definition.
So I’m led to expect that you think that to sensibly discuss whether a given behaviour is intelligent, friendly or moral, we need to be able to give precise definitions for intelligence, friendship and morality. But I can only think that this is fundamentally misguided: the discussions around these concepts are relevant precisely because we do not have such definitions at hand. We can try to unpack our intuitions about what we think of as a concept, for example by tabooing the word for it. But this is completely different from giving a definition.
Well, morality is such an enormous and multi-sided topic that what usually matters in a concrete situation is only some particular small subset of morality. A discussion can be meaningful if there is agreement on the issue at hand, even if there is disagreement otherwise. So to take the same example again, if we’re discussing whether someone is a thief (i.e has committed the sort of immoral behavior that is called “theft”), it doesn’t matter if we define murder differently, as long as we define theft the same.
But yes, of course that discussing whether a given behavior is intelligent, friendly, or moral makes sense only if we agree on the definitions of these terms. As I said above, in practice our definitions about human affairs are always fuzzy and incomplete to some degree, so there will always be disagreement at least in some corner cases, and discussions will be meaningful as long as they stick to the broader area of agreement. However, in case of friendship, intelligence, and most issues of morality, people typically agree at least roughly on the relevant definitions, so the usage of these words is usually meaningful.
Also, when people agree on definitions, it doesn’t matter if they are able to state these definitions precisely and explicitly, as long as there is no disagreement on whether the definitions are satisfied assuming given facts. Giving a precise definition of “friendship” would be a difficult task for most people, but it doesn’t matter since there is no significant disagreement on what behavior is expected from people one considers as friends, and what behavior should disqualify them. One the other hand, when someone makes vague ideological accusations such as “sexism,” there is no such agreement at all, and a rational discussion can’t even being before a clear definition of the term is given.
If I step on your toe unintentionally, and you’re in pain, just because I don’t feel that pain (it wasn’t my toe) doesn’t mean that any harm done occurred either in a Platonic sense or not at all. It sure as heck doesn’t mean that you’re an ideologically-motivated, irrational zealot for getting mad when my response is anything other than “Whoops, sorry.”
the problem is that the pain is not caused by someone stepping on your toe, but by someone showing subtle but detectable signs of thinking thoughts that you disagree with.
The pain caused by someone committing thought crime against you has a more dubious ontological status than the pain caused impact upon your toe.
A typical example of this is the word “gay”, the latest polite euphemism for male homosexual, the latest of a great many. Like every other polite euphemism for anything, it has become a swear word, a swear word that unlike Carlin’s list of seven words you used not to be able to say on TV, still has the power to shock.
Indeed, as soon as one creates a new euphemism, it implies that the thing that it is a euphemism for is unmentionably disgusting, thus becomes good swear word, depriving the euphemism of the niceness that is the essential characteristic of a euphemism, while rendering all previous euphemisms for the thing (of which there are usually large number) too disgusting to speak.
The pain caused by the inevitable and inexorable transition from euphemism to curse word is fundamentally different from the pain caused by stepping on your toes. It is more like the pain caused by losing an election, or someone banging a prettier girl than you banged. The tenth commandment forbids you to experience or admit to experiencing certain kinds of pain. Not all pains have equal status as cause for complaint. You cannot help feeling pain if someone steps on your toes, but you can and should help feeling certain other forms of pain, which forms of pain are therefore less real.
The problem is that some insults (and this is currently true about those relating to homosexuality) get backed up with violence and/or with serious social exclusion—they aren’t “just words”.
Also, people don’t reliably put abuse behind them. Their reactions to threats that it might start up again are quite strong. The situation is complicated by the fact that these reactions can be amplified by social effects.
Racial Paranoia: The Unintended Consequences of Political Correctness has the thesis that, because overt racism isn’t socially acceptable but covert racism still goes on, both black and white Americans search for more and more subtle clues to whether people are racist. This looks insane, but is a rational response to a difficult situation.
I’m not sure it’s a line so much as it’s an impression. Strategists try to reshape battlefields to give themselves the high ground. I’m not sure I can articulate anything worth updating on, but I’ll think about it and get back to you if I come up with anything.
“A typical example of this is the word “gay”, the latest polite euphemism for male homosexual, the latest of a great many.”
Hmm… I’d have guessed it was less about being a euphemism and more about English-speakers wanting to have a one-syllable word instead of a five-syllable one, much like “straight” is a one-syllable word for “heterosexual”, without this meaning that hetero sex is “unmentionably disgusting”.
Not all pains have equal status as cause for complaint.
Even from childhood we know that pain caused by deliberate insults often hurts more than physical fights.
People should not seek to take offense where none was meant—but when offense is meant, and you know it’s meant, not being hurt is often harder than ignoring a merely stepped-upon toe. A deliberate insult can linger all day in your mind when a toe is soon forgotten.
English-speakers wanting to have a one-syllable word instead of a five-syllable one, much like “straight” is a one-syllable word for “heterosexual”, without this meaning that hetero sex is “unmentionably disgusting”.
Supporting evidence: American English speakers weren’t even content with a two syllable word meaning that homo sex is “unmentionably disgusting”, and it’s been shortened to one syllable.
On a tangential note, this usage of “reclaim” has always bothered me. “Queer” didn’t start out with positive or neutral connotations. It has not been reclaimed by the GLBT movement, it has been appropriated. Reclamation denotes previous ownership, something that simply doesn’t apply when you look at the historical relationship between the words that are being “reclaimed” and the groups that are claiming them, but it’s chosen for its connotations of legitimacy, since people are less likely to object to your taking back what’s rightfully yours.
Only leftists consciously try to remake language. Conservatives do not,
This may reflect the conservative belief in naive realism, that words refer to things in the world, and are ultimately defined by pointing at stuff, primarily by mothers pointing at stuff, as in “mother tongue”. Leftists frequently believe that words create reality, hence they always start language projects.
If a rose by any other name will smell as sweet, no point in finding new words for shit. You want conservatives to say “gay”. Observe. They say “gay”, but somehow it sounds remarkably as if they saying (long, long, long list of words no one is allowed to say any more)
Before building a house, check that your foundation is sound.
The bias you have to be most careful of in this situation is availability. When claiming “liberals X, but conservatives don’t X,” I think people first run a mental search for “liberal X” and then a search for “conservative X.” But mental searches aren’t as reliable as you might wish—if in the post just above, your brain was primed with an example of “liberal X,” your mental search will be a lot better at thinking of liberal X, and so you might conclude that liberal X is much more common. Curse you, availability bias!
One way to train yourself to search thoroughly is my “magical exercise of power” (actually just an improv exercise, but assertive naming seems to have worked for the Rules of Power :P).
Actually, if you spend time in a highly partisan environment, availability bias is a huge problem. One of the things people do in an effort to convince each other is invent and promulgate pseudo-experience.
If you keep getting told stories of people from group A attacking group B, and you’re a B, the stories stick with you. You’re also less likely to spend time around A’s, so that you don’t have a personal history of knowing that they might be less dangerous than you’ve been told, and you’re not likely to hear stories about them being attacked by B’s or to take such stories seriously if you do hear them.
Only leftists consciously try to remake language. Conservatives do not,
“pro-life” instead of “anti-abortion” “Enhanced interrogation” instead of “Torture” ”Collateral damage” instead of “Civilian casualties” “Death tax” instead of “Inheritance tax” or “estate tax” ”Civilian contractors” instead of “Hired mercenaries” “Freedom fries” instead of “French fries” ”Freedom fighters” instead of “Those particular terrorists we happen to support” ″illegal” used as a noun.
Only leftists consciously try to remake language. Conservatives do not,
I’ve never heard this before. Can you point me to some evidence?
The rest of your comment seems intentionally offensive. Am I correct in this assessment?
If so, feel free to pm me with your intended message without the offensive content, if you are trying to make a point with the offensive content. I don’t know if anybody else is getting your intended message, but I know I am not, and I am curious, if you can reframe your content more constructively.
Probably not. Enhanced interrogation is torture, but not all torture is enhanced interrogation. “Enhanced interrogation” implies the point is to get information, if any is available. Torture includes more acts because it includes other purposes, like fun and deterrence.
Named is examples like China mentioned in the article. Unnamed was something like torture v. dustspecks where who is doing the torturing doesn’t figure into it.
I need to add: trying to induce a confession as China did, like trying to get information, is also “interrogation”, unlike torture for no reason, fun, deterrence, etc.
I almost admire your fortitude in repeatedly charging forward, Light Brigade-like, with material you know beforehand is going to be downvoted to oblivion for partisan mindkilling.
At this point you are coming across as either a troll or as hopelessly mind-killed. It is possible you do not fall into those categories, but that’s the impression one gets from comments like the above. Please read if you have not already done so why politics is the mindkiller.
Hm. This got downvoted pretty heavily, didn’t it. So how about some of the downvoters point out some examples of conservative projects to deliberately remodel language, in the sense for instance feminism explicitely tries to, or that whole business of political correctness.
Disclaimer: I’m not conservative, hell I’m not even American and we don’t have “conservatives” where I live. I’m asking this because the falseness of what sam said is very far from apparent to me.
How do you expect people to know who was provoked or unprovoked, once you deleted your comment? If you want people to know how a discussion went, you have the option of retracting but not deleting.
If I understand correctly, when a page gets refreshed with a reply to a comment, the delete button on that comment is gone; but as long as one is viewing a previous state of the page, when you use the delete button it works.
Which is what I did. I hadn’t seen your reply, you made it just as I was deleting—literally, I deleted and upon the page reloading I saw the inbox thingie with your reply. I was deleting because I had just noticed that I missed all those other replies to Sam.
Once again guessing, I’d say that “queer” and “bent” were both at a time abandoned by the gay community (even though “bent’ is of course the actual counterpart of “straight”) because of the negative connotations of weirdness in the former case, and something that’s not in its proper shape in the latter. “Gay” persisted because it was the first name whose alternate connotations were positive (being merry/carefree).
I don’t know why “queer” became acceptable to be reclaimed again, but I’m wondering whether it’s because “weird” is not really seen as a bad thing anymore—“geek” has also become a badge of honor after all, though it once used to be an insulting word.
Geek was actually the specific term for a carnival entertainer who bites the heads off of live chickens, before it became a generic term of abuse, before it became a specific term for someone who is passionate about a particular interest.
Also possibly because the original meaning of “weird” has become lost, or at least outmoded, as a result of tarnishing by association with the slur. Nowadays, high school and college literature professors have to preface discussions of Moby-Dick with a disclaimer to the effect that the passage
Well, well, well! Stubb knows him best of all, and Stubb always says he’s queer; says nothing but that one sufficient little word queer; he’s queer, says Stubb; he’s queer—queer, queer; and keeps dinning it into Mr. Starbuck all the time—queer, Sir—queer, queer, very queer. And here’s his leg! Yes, now that I think of it, here’s his bedfellow!
Hmm… I’d have guessed it was less about being a euphemism and more about English-speakers wanting to have a one-syllable word instead of a five-syllable
We already have more one syllable euphemisms for male homosexual than I can shake a stick at, each of which became a curse word, and each of which was supplanted by another euphemism. The most recent one previous to gay was “queer”.
The same usually happens with other euphemisms for other undesirable characteristics—for example “retard”.
Euphemisms do not work. If the thing being referred to was OK, we would not be looking for euphemisms, thus euphemising merely draws attention to the fact that the thing being referred to is not OK.
Even from childhood we know that pain caused by deliberate insults
But very rarely is someone in trouble for making a deliberate insult. When people get in trouble for being politically incorrect, they are accused of wrongthink, not intentionally insulting any specific identifiable person.
Also, I’m curious whether you think your assertion holds in cases where an activist organization of (Group X) is the entity that accuses a speaker of political incorrectness towards Group X.
The pain of deliberate insults occurs when Person A directly insults Person B, not when Person A denigrates group X. After all, school and University is non stop denigration of whites, males, white males, and dead white males, which has a lot to do with massive male drop out rate. So the alleged representatives of group X are not personally insulted.
I hate to get involved in political discussion, but that seems inconsistent with the data: dropout rates for men in the US are slightly higher than for women, but the difference is only about three percentage points. Perhaps more saliently, the gap appears to historically have been larger for black and Hispanic students than for whites (it still is for Hispanics), which is exactly the opposite of what I’d expect if “nonstop denigration of whites, males, white males, and dead white males” was a major factor.
My school more or less had all the teachers from the MTV show Daria. Most of those are leftist, with enormous character flaws and failures of rationality.
Fortunately I learned that reversed stupidity is not intelligence.
Marginalizing or diminishing people due to the socially enforced classes they belong to is not at all the same thing as “showing subtle signs of thinking thoughts you disagree with”.
Feeling demeaned or socially excluded is a fundamentally different kind of pain than that caused by having one’s toe stepped on: it is a much more damaging one.
Feeling demeaned is painful and can be worse than having one’s toe stepped on. But some people are allowed to complain about it, and other people are not.
It’s like saying that stepping on someone’s toe is bad, but some people by definition don’t have toes. If they claim to have toes too, it only proves their malice—by pretending to have toes they want to make us less sensitive about the pain of the real toe owners.
If you officially don’t have a toe, then everyone is free to step on your toe, because officially it didn’t happen. Other people then tell you how lucky you are for not having a toe. Then they accuse you of lack of empathy towards people who have their toes stepped on.
If you mean that there are classes of marginalized people who aren’t allowed or aren’t capable of objecting to mistreatment I agree. And I would agree that the cluster of people that cares a lot about racism, sexism, etc. often doesn’t see such people as deserving justice. When male victims of domestic violence feel excluded by feminist discussions of domestic violence which vilify men for example—I think that counts as a real harm.
But that does not mean everyone’s claim to having had their toe stepped on deserves equal respect or credibility. Claims of harm due to anti-white racism, as if it were equivalent to anti-black racism are really implausible and people taking offense to the suggestion of equivalence is reasonable. This is why I don’t agree with the anti-subordination activist’s position of privileging first person accounts of dis-empowered people when defining the scope of bigotry and injustice. I think neutral principles of some sort are required to sort out claims of injustice—but of course I don’t know how to arrive at such principles and think it is likely that any criteria I propose will be based on concern for protecting my politically favored groups. And that would be bad. In short, this stuff is really complicated and I’m not really aligned with much anyone on the subject.
Assuming it wasn’t a metaphor, it would still obviously be ill-posed though, right?
It may be that one game can be beaten by someone only on normal, but all levels but one are easier on hard with unlimited ammo. Or that one game is easier on normal and another easier with unlimited ammo on hard. One level might require 72 hours of straight gameplay to beat on hard with unlimited ammo, but such a victory might be reliably achieved, and a 9⁄10 chance of death each run on normal, with success determined by the third minute.
The metaphor is that people have different advantages and disadvantages. The one person whose challenge is difficulty conserving grenades and separating enemies to confront as few at a time as possible might have little in common with the person whose challenge is grouping enemies such that the fastest and slowest are each hit by as many of his individual grenade throws as possible.
claims of harm due to anti-white racism, as if it were equivalent to anti-black racism are really implausible
Oh come on. Lot of people get beaten up for being white, frequently maimed for life. There is a whole genre of you tube videos on the topic. No one gets beaten up for being black—and very few people ever did. The fact that when you are digging for white racist attacks, you wind up with such an implausible poster boy as Emmit Till shows how hard up you are for examples.
Which tells us:Participation in such Red State activities as high school ROTC, 4-H clubs, or the Future Farmers of America was found to reduce very substantially a student’s chances of gaining admission to the competitive private colleges in the NSCE database on an all-other-things-considered basis. The admissions disadvantage was greatest for those in leadership positions in these activities or those winning honors and awards. “Being an officer or winning awards” for such career-oriented activities as junior ROTC, 4-H, or Future Farmers of America, say Espenshade and Radford, “has a significantly negative association with admission outcomes at highly selective institutions.” Excelling in these activities “is associated with 60 or 65 percent lower odds of admission.”
I have basically no desire to have an extended discussion on this matter with someone who seems to have had their mind killed by politics (whether or not I’ve had my mind killed as well). Of particular note is second clause of
No one gets beaten up for being black—and very few people ever did.
which is historically ignorant to an almost absurd point—a point I don’t think I’ve seen anyone take before. I will note that random irrational violence is almost always done by victims of one kind or another. High status people don’t get into fights as a rule. Low status people are much more likely to—this isn’t surprising when considering what kind of behaviors get selected for in a mammal dominance hierarchy. Males with few to no mating possibilities because of their low status are much more likely to risk their lives in combat in order attain higher status and mating opportunities. Alpha elephant seals with large harems don’t pick fights with the young bulls who lack harems. Obviously black people who beat up white people do not experience a substantive status change when the succeed but we all know evolved software misfires.
(Unfortunately it may need to be said that I don’t consider the above explanation for violence to be a justification for violence)
No one gets beaten up for being black—and very few people ever did.
which is historically ignorant to an almost absurd point-
So where is your poster boy who got beaten up for being black? If you had such a poster boy, you would not be reduced to using Emmet Till as poster boy.
I will note that random irrational violence is almost always done by victims of one kind or another.
You will seem to be conceding what you deny.
Groups that employ random irrational violence tend to lose to groups that employ rational coordinated cooperative violence, violence that is bold yet planned and prudent, groups that display loyalty and discipline. It does not follow that that those who employ random irrational violence are violent because they lost, but rather that they lost because their violence was irrational.
Nor does it follow that those groups that lost were “victims”. If we look at Africa, it is apparent that blacks were better off ruled by whites than by blacks.
So where is your poster boy who got beaten up for being black? If you had such a poster boy, you would not be reduced to using Emmet Till as poster boy.
There’s no more need for a poster boy for racial violence against blacks than there is for a poster boy for historical repression of the Native Americans. Why should anyone have to come up with a single representative example when you can point to general policy?
Well into the 20th century, the Klu Klux Klan was still considered socially respectable as an institution, and being a member could even be politically advantageous.
It’s easy to take a position that’s socially frowned upon, and argue or assume that everyone who disagrees with you is too biased by social conditioning to change their minds. Easy enough to turn it into a fully general counterargument. But here of all places, I think you should keep in mind that if your position is getting a bad reception, you should strongly consider the possibility that you are either not making a good case for it, or that you’re arguing for something that simply isn’t correct.
So where is your poster boy who got beaten up for being black? If you had such a poster boy, you would not be reduced to using Emmet Till as poster boy.
There’s no more need for a poster boy for racial violence against blacks than there is for a poster boy for historical repression of the Native Americans
So you are not going to let the absence of any facts get in your way.
Well into the 20th century, the Klu Klux Klan was still considered socially respectable as an institution
Which presupposes that which is to be proven: That the Klu Klux Klan beat blacks up for being black, the way blacks beat whites up for being white every day.
The Klu Klux Klan made it dangerous to engage in certain political activities, especially if one was black (see the Wikipedia list of notorious Klan Murders). It did not make it dangerous merely to be black, the way it is dangerous merely to be white in any location where whites are outnumbered by blacks. Klan violence was political violence, and indeed terrorism, but it was not race hate, not the race hate that we see so enthusiastically displayed by blacks on You tube
Come to think of it, it is also dangerous to be black in any location where whites are outnumbered by blacks (the presence of whites makes blacks safer from other blacks), but it is even more dangerous to be white in such areas.
Which presupposes that which is to be proven: That the Klu Klux Klan beat blacks up for being black, the way blacks beat whites up for being white every day.
What would you take as adequate evidence? The Klu Klux Klan is notorious for having lynched and committed other acts of racially motivated violence. There’s no shortage of writers who have written about racially motivated violence against blacks as part of their personal experience. There’s no shortage of documentation. What evidence, that we should reasonably be expect to be there if a significant amount of racial violence against blacks has happened, and have access to, would be sufficient for you?
If you simply wanted to convince other members of this board that most racially motivated crime in America today is committed against whites, your best bet would probably have simply been to link them to this. But even this is a seriously problematic claim; the idea that 90% of race based crime incidents are white seems to originate here. I read the original report, and confirmed that it makes no such claim, rather, Sheehan gets that figure by classifying all interracial crime as race based crime, and comparing the number of violent crimes committed by black perpetrators and white victims with the number of violent crimes committed by white perpetrators with black victims. But not only is it absurd to suppose that all violent interracial crime is racially motivated, there are a lot more white people in this country than black people, meaning that if all criminals chose their victims completely at random, black on white crime would dramatically outnumber white on black crime. In fact, according to the report, crime among black people is more intraracial than crime among white people relative to the number of crimes committed.
The swastika on the tab for the site where Sheehan wrote the article is a pretty significant sign of a biased agenda all by itself.
But claiming that violence against blacks by whites has not been historically significant, in addition to present day race based crime being slanted in the opposite direction, that’s a really outstanding claim. So what evidence are you prepared to present?
What would you take as adequate evidence? The Klu Klux Klan is notorious for having lynched and committed other acts of racially motivated violence.
A black man who happened to be walking down the street while a dozen Klansmen happened to be walking by in the other direction was not going to be attacked by a dozen Klansmen for no special reason other than general hatred of blacks, the way a white man walking down the street may be attacked by a dozen blacks for no special reason other than general hatred of whites.
If you count all the blacks that were attacked to be carried off into slavery, unjust white attacks on blacks probably greatly outnumber unjust black attacks on whites, but these were not race hate attacks. They attacked because they wanted someone to cut sugar cane, not because they disliked blacks.
From the absence of race hate attacks by whites, and the frequency of race hate attacks by blacks, we can conclude that everywhere in America today, the safest places for a white man, are also the safest places for a black man.
From which we can conclude that you do in fact believe that blacks on average, have worse character than whites, since you are aware that predominantly black areas are unsafe—unsafe for everyone, but especially unsafe for whites.
From the fact that Everett Till is the poster boy for white attacks on blacks, we can conclude that in all of American history from around that time to the present, there has never been a racially motivated attack on a black resembling racially motivated attacks on whites that occur every day in today’s America, because if there ever had been such an attack, you would not be reduced to using Emmet Till as poster boy.
Why bother to quote my text if you’re not going to answer the question?
You could say that there are cases where black people have attacked white people for being white, and I wouldn’t contest it. And you could say that white people haven’t attacked black people for being black, and I would be willing to concede that there is a sense in which that is true. But to say that black people have attacked white people for being white, but white people have not attacked black people for being black is simply absurd.
The reason that they can both be individually correct, but not accurate as a comparison is because it involves a manipulation of terms. I am prepared to accept the claim that black people sometimes attack white people for being white, with the implicit understanding that what this really means is “being white and being in the wrong neighborhood,” or “being white and being taken as a scapegoat for a lifetime of second class citizenship.”
I am also prepared to accept that the claim that white people don’t kill black people for being black can be said to be true in a sense; you’re not going to find a white person who’ll kill a black person for being black in the same sense that they’d kill a person for sleeping with their wife. But you can find white people who’ll go out and commit premeditated attacks on people of other races to promote their ideology of a racially homogeneous society and strengthen their allegiance to the cause. It’s called lone wolf activism. And while the Klu Klux Klan would not, as you said, attack a black man who just happened to be walking down the street, a black person could attract violence for being found in the wrong neighborhood, just like your white person in a black neighborhood scenario, or for associating too closely with white people, or being too successful, or “getting ideas above their station.” Black people were attacked for representing a threat to white individuals’ place in the social hierarchy among people who needed someone to look down on. Saying that this doesn’t count as white people attacking black people for being black, while black on white racially motivated violence does count, is a severe case of special pleading.
Come to think of it, it is also dangerous to black in any location where whites are outnumbered by blacks, but it is even more dangerous to be white.
What dangers are you referring to, specifically? Can you point me to a specific source that measures these harms? I have never heard your concluding suggestion before, though I think I have heard the opposite claim.
It did not make it dangerous merely to be black, the way it is dangerous merely to be white in any location where whites are outnumbered by blacks.
Evidence?
One series of anecdotes: I’ve been the only white person in the subway car quite a few times. I didn’t check carefully, but there were few if any Asians. I’m short, I’m female, I have no reason to think I’m a scary looking person. I haven’t been attacked or threatened.
Downvoted for selecting one out of hundreds of potential effects and calling it “apparent” without a shred of evidence. Seriously, you can’t make that point without a book-length argument, and good luck getting anyone to read a book like that.
You said something like this before, and—at risk of lowering the signal-to-noise ratio further, in which case I apologize—I’m honestly curious: what’s wrong with Emmitt Till?
It seems that you are going out of your way to spread general mind-killing to this thread.
Your second point, regarding differential admissions to colleges is potentially much more interesting. The claim that there’s both directed harm and actual inefficiency resulting is a pretty strong type of argument. And you even back it up with sources.
But you start off your post with a claim that even if it were true is only marginally related to the topic at hand and is going to create a clear negative emotional reaction in almost any reader. And that claim is made with zero sourcing other than your own say so.
Depending on your viewpoint one can classify the following as either Dark Arts or as good communication: when talking to people about controversial subjects you don’t need to throw out every claim that could potentially help one viewpoint, and this is an especially bad idea when one of those supporting arguments will give a negative association to the claims in question. This is true whether or not the supporting argument is factually accurate.
Here’s an example that will be likely less controversial here. If I’m discussing evolution with a religious Jew or Christian, it more efficient to stick with the easily discussed factual issues. If they make specifically religious objections one can simply say that that’s something they’ll need to resolve and just lightly note that some people seem to be able to do it. You aren’t going to get very far if your central arguments are something like fossil record, genetics, oh and your religion is all bullshit.
Eh, not that hard to give examples in the US either. The most recent that comes to mind. And that’s just the most recent fatality. If one extends to just people being “beaten up” the set will be much larger.
I (perhaps incorrectly) understood him to be speaking of within the US.
Claims must be specific and backed with evidence. The claim as he stated it is false. If he wants to limit it in scope, then let him limit it as he will, and its significance then becomes proportionaly limited in a similar way. From a claim about the world entire, it becomes a claim for about 1/20th of the global population, and thus attains 1/20th its former significance, at which point we ought give it about 1/20th the weight we otherwise would.
I want parochialism and assumptions of parochialism to have no place in this forum. If we can discuss many-worlds and if we can worry about what we’ll be doing for fun a million years from now, then people can bloody well lift their noses up to perceive there exist countries outside the USA.
On the one hand, of course the whole world matters. On the other, we can make much more specific claims about smaller regions, and test them more easily.
In this particular case, I think both are overwhelmed by concerns of conversational pragmatism. If you can defeat his arguments in the framework where he made them, you win. If you make an objection outside that domain, and he says “but that’s not what I meant”, then squabbling about particularities of domain, word choice, and inference is a frequently observed failure mode. Noting and criticizing US-centrism (or any other -centrism) is worth doing, but should be considered an aside.
I am surprised that this is so severely downvoted.
The second and third paragraphs are excellent, with sources, and I have very different standards for voting depending on the speaker and what I expect from him or her. Do others not? I would encourage sam0345 to make more posts like this until they are standard for him, and then later dowvote him for such posts when posts like this are typical for him.
I wouldn’t have downvoted it in isolation, but it seemed to me that, taking his other activity today into account, sam0345 was basically trolling. My habit is just to downvote that stuff until it goes away. Maybe the line between relatively high-quality trolling and needlessly inflammatory dissent is blurry...but are we really short on Brave Truth-Tellers here on LW? I submit we are not.
Oh no, not at all, I meant it more like “Oh LW, you so crazy!” I believe we are very, very contrarian here; stating unpopular beliefs is a form of showing off (see The Irrationality Game). I am not sure what quantifiable evidence I can offer of that, but I’m far from the first to make the observation.
I am surprised that this is so severely downvoted.
If it had excluded the sentence “No one gets beaten up for being black—and very few people ever did,” I would have given it an upvote without a second thought. Because of that comment, I gave it an upvote only because I think it doesn’t deserve to be at −6, and would not have upvoted it if I saw it at 0.
Then they accuse you of lack of empathy towards people who have their toes stepped on.
And by abduction: lack of empathy for people who have thorns in their side, lack of empathy for those weak at the knees, and eremikophobia (fear of sand).
Marginalizing or diminishing people due to the socially enforced classes they belong to is not at all the same thing as “showing subtle signs of thinking thoughts you disagree with”.
When someone uses “gay” as a curse word, he is not “marginalizing blah blah blah”. He is inadvertently revealing that he thinks homosexuality is a bad thing—or inadvertently revealing that he thinks the frequent change of euphemism is an indication that most people think it is a bad thing. You are punishing him for his beliefs, not for his actions. He is not intentionally attacking anyone.
No one is saying he is. In fact, the context of this entire thread is someone saying explicitly that no one is saying he is.
Jandila:
if there’s one thing I don’t need more of in my life it’s arguing with a population comprised mostly of wealthy, white Libertarian-esque cisgendered/heterosexual men whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot.
When people say “that shit is gay” gay people feel marginalized and diminished. They feel hurt. Whether or not it was intentional (and certainly it often is).
When people say “that shit is gay” gay people feel marginalized and diminished.
School and university is a non stop denigration of whites, males, and white males. It is clear that males feel marginalized and diminished, which contributes to high and rising dropout rate of males, but it is more important to worry about the marginalization of some groups that other groups.
whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot.
I’d be intrigued to see an example of an argument for the statement:
“You can’t be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot”
because I have never seen that sentiment expressed in my life. And I find it hard to see many people agreeing with it. Reasoning that it is false is far too simple.*
*(imagine a world where the general belief is that green people are brutish and ignorant, and should be killed on sight. Now imagine a farmer who has been told this, and believes it, and has never seen any evidence to the contrary. Has he ever made a decision of the form “Should I be bigoted? Yes I should”?)
You raise a good point, and that’s that definitions are unclear and there is little consensus on them. I’m not making my meaning explicit enough, and should probably taboo the words I’m using here.
I’ve often observed people defend themselves or others against accusations of racism, sexism, and whatever by replying that they are not intentionally being bigoted.
It’s not ridiculous to infer from that observation that many people believe that, in order to be racist/sexist/whatever, one must be intentionally bigoted.
That said, I think it’s the wrong inference. What I infer from it is instead that many people emotionally reject such accusations and grab whatever arguments they can think of to counter them, even arguments that depend on premises that many of those same people would rightly reject as absurd when phrased in the abstract.
(Comment retracted because it was based on a misreading.)
I’ve often observed people defend themselves or others against accusations of racism, sexism, and whatever by replying that they are not intentionally being bigoted.
It’s not ridiculous to infer from that observation that many people believe that, in order to be racist/sexist/whatever, one must be intentionally bigoted.
That said, I think it’s the wrong inference.
So, according to you, what is the definition of being “racist/sexist/whatever” that would allow us to draw the conclusion that this inference is wrong? And what is the reason why we should agree on this definition?
To consider a less controversial analogy, if you are accused of theft, there are multiple necessary conditions in the standard definition of theft that you can use to counter the accusation if your act did not involve any one of them. For example, you might argue that the property claim of the accuser is invalid, that the taking was unintentional or done under duress or out of life-saving necessity, that the act is excusable under the de minimis principle, etc., etc.
Now, if it often happens that there is a complete agreement on facts but there is still a disagreement on whether a given act constitutes theft, we can only conclude that the definition of “theft” is controversial and non-standardized, so it doesn’t make any sense for people to talk about “theft” before they’ve made it explicit what exact definition they apply. Which indeed may be the case—sometimes there are conflicts between people coming from cultures or milieus that have very different ideas on what constitutes a valid property claim, what counts as duress or necessity, what is excusable under de minimis, and so on. Such conflict has no objectively correct resolution, and the outcome depends on who will prevail by means other than rational discussion of facts and logic. And if it makes sense to accuse someone of theft, it is only under the assumption that there is an agreed-upon definition of theft that is clearly satisfied by the fact asserted in your accusation.
Yet unlike this analogy, you seem to believe that there is some objective sense in which someone is “racist/sexist/whatever,” despite the evident lack of agreement on what these terms are supposed to mean, or even whether they make any sense at all.
Nope, I don’t believe that “racism” (etc.) is any more objectively defined a category than “theft”, and I don’t think there’s any particular definition of it we should all agree on. I agree with you that disagreements about category membership can arise even when there’s agreement on facts, both with respect to “racism” (etc.) and more or less every other human category.
(This is not surprising, given that the way human brains categorize percepts and concepts maps very imperfectly to how we imagine definitions working; the whole idea of categories having definitions is a very poor approximation of what’s going on. But that’s a digression.)
If anything I’ve said implies that “racism” or any other category has an objective definition in the sense you seem to mean here, I’ve completely missed that implication and am likely very confused. If you feel inclined to unpack what it was I said that implies that, I’d be appreciative.
Looking back, it seems like I misunderstood your comment. Specifically, I misinterpreted what exactly the “wrongness” in the last paragraph refers to, which makes my criticism inapplicable. My apologies.
“many of the posters here, who don’t have some hands-on experience with being in a social minority and are not apt to readily grasp the difference between “I am angry/hurt by this AND think it is incorrect” and “my disagreement is purely emotional”).”
I think it is unfair to say they do not understand when they may simply believe that motivated cognition is occurring or similar.
Misleading-ness isn’t a property of a statement, but of a statement-interpreter pair.
So if people claim statements are misleading because some other minds will misinterpret it to the detriment of their in-group, when there is no sign such misinterpreters exist in significant number, that seems like a power grab (independent of the question of whether or not that group should have more power) at the expense of the principle of charity.
Thus wouldn’t be the case if people were leaving comments arguing against what they thought were authors’ beliefs with them wrong about the author’s beliefs, or agreeing with what they thought were the authors’ beliefs with them wrong about the author’s beliefs.
Summary: It is possible to selectively use demands for precision as a form of censorship.
Now now, insight like that might slow the evaporative cooling that has been happening on Lesswrong when it comes to gender and sexuality (and to a much lesser extent on all unPC matters). Thinkers here used to be much less burdened by this, makes even a fool hard pressed to chuckle.
You can demonstrate an absurd case, but check this out:
“On average, men are taller than women.”
Note the utter dearth of twisted, tortured forced phrasing and the way it totally requires no linguistic effort to generate that context if you just stop to think before you speak. If someone disputes that, they’re either clearly wrong or have an interesting study to look at (and probably debunk).
I’m a woman and I’m 6′5″ (taller than 99.9999% of women last time I checked), but I can’t see what’s wrong with stating it that way. Your reply is kind of a straw example of what’s being asked.
This was a good example, but I think you probably missed a part of the message. Or maybe I am imagining a part that did not exist.
Generally, people are speaking imprecisely. To state one’s opinion with a mathematical precision as you did, is rare. (For example, writing this paragraph I would have a problem to precisely define what “generally” and “rare” mean in this context.) And when normally speaking, people tolerate this. …uhm, usually.
Asking people to be precise is also a signal of something. We usually don’t demand perfect clarity for every sentence we ever read or hear, even on LW. I suppose we usually demand it when we disagree with one’s opinion.
Placing a burden of preciseness on some people or some opinions, provides their opponents cheap counter-attacks, when they don’t have to discuss the argument, only point out the impreciseness.
Now, carefully crafting one’s comments into precise sentences is possible, but has a non-zero cost. So by selectively asking people, whose opinion we don’t like, to be more precise than usual, we make them pay for their dissent. All while pretending that we only care about the truth, without taking sides.
Of course, people learn that they are asked for higher precision only when expressing certain opinions, so if they want to avoid the costs of such speech, they avoid the sensitive topics. But that’s the point, isn’t it? By increasing standards of speech for certain opinion, we gradually make it disappear.
I think that people often feel when this is done to them, but it’s kind of difficult for them to express what is happening, without seeming kind of paranoid. Also it’s kind of difficult to express your feelings in a situation when an extra dose of preciseness is required.
Summary: It is possible to selectively use demands for precision as a form of censorship.
I don’t want “perfect clarity* from people, I want for the people on this site who make declarative statements about groups of people they’re not in (especially when the implications shape their behavior toward members of that group) to be factually-accurate and not misleading in their implications. This is not a complex or censorious idea.
I don’t want “politically correct”, I want actually correct. Do you see the difference? What I want to see is people not committing the ecological fallacy (Population X is statistically Y on average, ergo more members than not will be Y) and nobody pointing it out just because the conclusions are agreeable to a majority on this site.
I do not have the power, let alone the desire, to censor you or any other poster on this site (other than by means of downvoting a comment, and I only get the one downvote).
My point was that I suspect that a presence of “politically incorrect” ideas increases our desire for actual correctness, while an absence of such ideas makes us relax.
Perhaps this bias already has a name; I don’t remember it. It means requiring stronger evidence to ideas you disagree with; and not being aware of it.
If you require the same level of proof for both “politically correct” and “politically incorrect” comments, then it is OK. But it seems to me that in many discussions the level of proof rises up at the moment that “politically incorrect” opinions are introduced.
EDIT: Of course, even if my hypothesis is true, this is not an evidence for “politically incorrect” ideas (that would just be trying to reverse stupidity).
EDIT2: I would like to taboo the term “politically incorrect” in this comment, but I can’t find a short enough substitute with the same expressive power. I would like to make it more group-dependent, not outside-world-dependent. It is supposed to mean: something that a decent member of this group would hesitate to say, because the morality keepers of this group will obviously disagree.
It’s pretty clear that if we’re dealing with ideas whose incorrect versions have great potential to do harm, then we should be careful to only disseminate the correct versions. It’s a question of epistemic hygiene and minimizing the effects of contaminated mindware.
If we were discussing the recipe for a food that tasted marvelous when prepared correctly, but could cause severe poisoning when prepared incorrectly, then I would want people to be precise and careful in their wording as well. “Requiring stronger evidence for ideas you disagree with” doesn’t have much to do with it: it’s a straightforward expected utility calculation.
Suppose someone made the comment that “men and women are equal.” Would that statement be acceptable, or would it need revision for preciseness?
(To try and not bias your response, I’ll hold off on explaining the utility calculation I made with regards to that statement.)
What would be the context of the comment, and what sense of “equal” is implied?
For instance, I probably wouldn’t object to someone saying “men and women are equal” if it was clear from the context that they meant “men and women should have equal rights”. On the other hand, there are a variety of well-documented statistical differences between men and women, and trying to deny some of those might be harmful.
E.g. I’ve often heard it claimed that the difference in average pay between women and men is mostly attributable to differences in ambition and time voluntarily spent at home with children. I haven’t looked at the matter enough to know if this is true. But if it is, then denying any population-level differences between men and women seems harmful, because it implies that something that actually has an innocuous explanation is because of discrimination.
I don’t think I’d use the word innocuous with the example of this reason for this gender difference. If it is a rational choice, why don’t both genders make similar choices?
Sexual dimorphism?
(One specific example: women have ovaries, men have testes. Both organs release mind-affecting hormones, in different distributions.)
you do not address my point of the word choice ‘innocuous’.
Ok: let’s suppose he intended the primary definition of innocuous, “not harmful.” If a choice is made voluntarily, then by the assumption of revealed preferences it is the least ‘harmful.’ If we forced women to choose with the same distribution that men do, then on net women would be worse off- i.e. harmed by our force.
It seems incontestable to me that distributions of values are different for men and women. If values are different, choices will be different, and that is optimal.
I agree that men and women have different distributions of values due to sexual dimorphism. It isn’t obvious, though, that those different values are sufficient to explain women choosing to stay and home and raise children at a greater rate than men. For example, it may be the case the women face greater social pressure to raise children or that when couples choose who should continue working and who should stay home there is an unjustified cultural assumption that women should be the ones who stay home. There may also be social pressures in the other direction: pushing men to work more than is optimal. It is harder to find social companionship as a stay at home father and Western culture ties the ability to provide for a family to man’s worth. Even if these cultural norms are the product of on-average sexual dimorphism they would still harm those who deviate from the average values of their sex. A man who prefers to stay home and raise children and a woman who prefers to leave children at home to work may face additional costs to their decisions because their values deviate from what they are expected to value due to their gender.
I do not have any objection to your use of the word innocuous, here.
I think that calling the choice to spend more or less time doing financially unrecompensed work in the home an innocuous gender difference, is careless. The harms of the various choices have not been evaluated that well. And it may be impossible to evaluate that harm without bias.
It is not uncompensated financially, if the alternative is hiring someone to do the same work. It may or may not be under-compensated, depending on her other options.
Yay! Do you think your evaluation is bias-free? How much should normally financially-uncompensated work in the home be worth, market prices? Which is worth more, an investment of time or money?
Between cooks and gardeners and housekeepers and nannies and laundry services and grocery delivery and personal assistants, I am really failing to think of any housework that could not be contracted out. In which case, when members of the household do it themselves they are saving themselves precisely the cost of contracting it out. My laundering my shirts is being compensated at .99 cents/lb minus the cost of running the laundry machines. My cooking dinner is being compensated at the price of a meal out minus the cost of a meal in.
Have I demonstrated that calling such a choice ‘innocuous’ is a careless word choice yet?
You think my choice to cook a meal for myself and my wife, rather than (say) ordering a pizza, is not innocuous?
The actual choices people make are often very carefully calculated with regard to benefits. And this includes both the choice to leave ‘home’ work to paid professionals, or unpaid amateurs. And the choice to become a well-paid professional (or self-employed professional).
I totally agree with this point:
But rationally understanding the gender bias inherent in different choices does not make cleaning up after any other person, unpaid, a wholly joyous choice.
My only point is that it is not unpaid.
Circumstance 1) I go to my programming job, write programs for other people, and in the end my household has more money than otherwise.
Circumstance 2) Someone goes to a housekeeping job, cleans up after other people, and in the end their household has more money than otherwise.
Circumstance 3) Someone cleans their own household, part of which involves cleaning up after other people, in place of hiring a housekeeper, and in the end their household has more money than otherwise.
Please clarify why circumstance 2 is “paid” and circumstance 3 is “unpaid”, and why 3 is less “joyous” than 2; 3 may, in fact, prefer to be cleaning up for people they care about, and may be better appreciated. And who says a choice being “wholly joyous” is relevant anyway? My going to work instead of working on my own projects is the right decision (I believe), but it is not “wholly joyous”—just mostly.
It may cause caring about them.
My only point is this: gender differences and choice difference probably do not wholly justify the pay inequity between genders. The choice of the word ‘innocuous’ in this case is careless. Do you agree, or disagree?
In answer to your explicit question: I am speaking of negotiable payment, in tokens that can be exchanged in any market. And I am also calculating payment of intangible compensation, like the respect of others and self-respect. I find your actual questions, with quoted words to denote careful usage, confusing.
Payment in ‘increased money for the household’ is fine, and is part of the calculations individuals use to evaluate and justify their choices. And joys.
“wholly joyous” is, in my mind, an unattainable ideal, but the joy, payment, and respect individuals get for the work that they/we do is measurable, if not always negotiable. And the harm is not always considered at all.
I was never addressing the entirety of your argument—on which I have to reserve judgment, having not thought it through entirely.
As it happens, my wife and I both work. We both receive income in tokens that can be exchanged in any market. However, I think this is a meaningless distinction; per the laws of the state of California, money I make isn’t “mine” and money she makes “hers”—money either of us make is “ours”. As either of us works, we have more tokens. As either of us does tasks that save us money, we have more tokens. Describing the latter as not involving “financial recompense” I view as inaccurate.
If you simply wish to state that such work is under-compensated financially, I may agree. If you wish to state that such work is often under-appreciated, I would certainly agree. You stated that house work was financially unrecompensed. I was simply picking a nit. If it critically undermines your argument, update. If it doesn’t, fix your argument. If you still disagree, please explain why.
I am really enjoying this discussion. And I respect the fact that you are reserving judgment, as you haven’t thought it out very thoroughly.
I didn’t think my objection to the use of the word innocuous through before I voiced it, and I absolutely don’t regret it.
But I am literally having trouble figuring out what else I am supposed to object to. I am willing to try to explain. And I think I can better understand my position, if I understand IF or HOW people disagree with my original objection about word choice. I have not stated this confusion often or clearly enough, so, to set a ‘good’ example, I will state it as a question:
Do you approve of the word innocuous, meaning harmless, in the statement above? Why or why not?
Having said all that, I’ll give it a stab a reply to your more recent comments anyway. The use of a question mark in your words makes it much easier for me to identify your question, and answer it.
Personal note: I am not usually trying to be ironic, but I am aware that I often come across that way. I make special effort on LW to be more precise and direct, and careful in my statements. Taking out the word ‘totally’, which I usually sling about in order to increase positive feedback in my day-to-day life, in order to suggest that I have a sense of humor about my unfortunate ‘know it all’ attitude may have been an error. Feel free to assume I am just trying to make a humorous point instead of a serious one, if you find me offensive on a rational level!
But enough about me...
‘such work’ is not defined, but I assume you are referring to home work, whether paid in negotiable tokens or ‘financially unrecompensed’.
I did not notice stating this:
And what the state of CA thinks about the negotiable and non-negotiable arrangements you make with each other, or with employers, I do not really care about, as long as CA does not force you to live there, and there are a wide variety of other options available to you both. Do you have a wide variety of other options?
I disagree with your conclusion, but on a somewhat pedantic level. Financial recompense and Optional reduction of financial expense are not equivalent. One is simply a pile of tokens. The other is a choice and a judgment about what to do with a pile of tokens. Do you disagree?
It depends somewhat on whether we are speaking descriptively or prescriptively, in terms of how people think about it.
Do I think that most people consider these to be the same, and that you are some odd outlier for interpreting it differently? No.
I just think this perspective is less useful, and leads to (amongst other things) such work being undervalued. Fundamentally, I have a set of choices in front of me that represent different outcomes; in some of these, my pile of tokens is larger than in others. When my pile of tokens is larger down one path than another, I am being financially compensated for making that choice (or financially penalized for making the other).
Well, I totally agree that ‘such work’ (some paid and some unpaid work in the home) is absolutely undervalued, but I’m not sure what that has to do with any particular perspective.
I don’t know how other people think about the unpaid housework that other people are doing. I personally am grateful for it, but I have never supported anyone who I shared housework with, nor the reverse, and I really do have trouble doing the part I actually recognize as my share. And I have never cared as much about how clean things ‘ought’ to be as any of these roommates and ex-boyfriends did.
In myself, I kind of deplore this tendency to do what I’m inclined to and let the chips fall where they may. I do, of course, always manage to get things clean enough for my own standards. And I do far more housework when I live alone, because nobody else gets ‘fed up’ and takes over.
I had to respond somewhat anecdotally here, and I wish I could keep the more analytical, academic tone of your comment. My main problem with that is I’m not sure if I’m being descriptive or prescriptive, so I don’t know how to respond without figuring that out—but I need a nap first and I wanted to reply right away. If I’ve made it clear which I was doing with this response, that was totally my intention!
I can’t tell if your comment is mostly explanatory, or requests confirmation or introduces a new topic! Taking that nap now.
This was my understanding of the comment here, and was what I initially objected to.
OK. I consider negotiable tokens to be the only definition of financially recompensed. An optional reduction of financial expense, on an individual level is simply personal budgeting.
In the case of any particular couple, how the work, paid or unpaid, is divided, I don’t really care. Unless the arrangement is a source of stress for that relationship.
I think that a gender-biased pay disparity can aggravate financial stress in heterosexual relationships. And I think that a high disparity in income level can cause a similar stress in any couple, no matter the actual gender or sexual orientation.
The questions of ‘how best can i contribute’ and ‘am I acting responsibly by choosing to contribute, unpaid, in the home while being supported (fully or partially) on someone else’s “dime” (long may it last)’ are difficult and sometimes conflicting questions, whether gender pay inequities are biased. Or irrelevant, because the couple are of the same gender.
Questions I wonder about but do not know the answers to: How common are one-income households in either situation? How stable are one-income households compared to two income households? I’m pretty sure there’s quite a lot of data on heterosexuals.
Since gender bias probably exists, I wish we could compare it to data on homosexual couples, but they do not get the same social support or suffer the same social pressures… so I’m not sure how meaningful a comparison would be. But I’m still curious.
I agree.
In one of my dreams last night, I was living with a sorceress. She needed some reagents, and her friend on the moon wanted to use a human skeleton for some occult purpose. So she removed my first person perspective/spirit from my body and put it on the mantle across from the magic mirror, so I could see things that were going on. She then incinerated my flesh, leaving charred bones held together in human form by magic.
I then watched an Indiana Jones-style path animation of my skeleton going to the moon, and of magic supplies for my sorceress girlfriend being sent from there to Earth. Other stuff happened in the magic mirror, and eventually there was another path animation of my bones being sent back. My bones were magically cleaned, flesh was put on them, and my spirit was returned to my body.
Despite the fact that she didn’t ask my permission, I didn’t mind and wasn’t bothered by the events as they happened. In real life, I’m a different person and would probably mind such a thing.
My point is that whether something having to do with relative income or who does what in a relationship is a source of stress depends on the mindsets of the people in the relationship. If neither member of a couple minds acquiring goods or negotiable tokens by having one suddenly extrude the other’s soul, scorch their body until their bones are black, and lend them to friends, and they’re happier that way than they would be in less gruesome scenarios...that’s what works for them.
It seems so obvious when you put it that way. (Upvoted for divine lunacy.)
I don’t want to get involved in the personal business between any two or three+ people, but I also do not mean to suggest that every arrangement that both parties agree to has a matching balance of stress and benefit to both parties. (Love your dream scenario! for me, that would totally be a nightmare.)
And I don’t think any specific gender causes the harm for a pattern of gender differences, like a bias to favor male employees because people report more satisfaction with male employees.
But with a gender-based pay inequity, which couples benefit most? gay men, straight people, or lesbians?
And should we care more about couples than we do about individuals, eg: single women? I don’t think anybody is suggesting this. But this is, in my mind, the primary problem with gender-based pay inequities, and ‘innocuous’ causes are no longer ‘innocuous’ if the harm to individuals is measurable and significant.
Great :)
I’ll be responding to the above in several chunks, as it’s gotten large enough to be a bit unwieldy.
To say that a situation is not wholly caused by enumerated factors is generally trivially true, so the question becomes how much connotation is intended, which means the question should probably be rephrased.
I don’t think it’s a good idea to ask if states of the world are justified when people disagree about the causes of those states of the world unless great care is taken to not be confusing. Those things can be addressed separately by just talking about causation and also asking what would be justified under a hypothetical set of facts.
I don’t know how to think of those things, particularly self respect, particularly since the frame is not just causation but justice.
Very true, and I must pedantically point out that I did not ask a question about how much connotation was intended. I suggested that the connotation of ‘harmless’ seemed careless to me. Literally and seriously careless, especially given my trivial research into the subject revealed that there is bias for male employees that employers, rationally, respond to.
I agree. I was trying to avoid this, because I mostly agree. I did not bring up the state of the world, and I seriously did avoid discussion of it in this thread, which apparently was also offensive? I am somewhat concerned about the state of the world, but I already take great care not to be confusing, and fail.
I do have some doubts about drawing conclusions from a hypothetical set of facts, unless those conclusions are testable and, in fact, tested. But I am philosophically inclined to talk hypotheticals long into the night...
Well, I probably care more about justice than I do just word choice. But I do far more for the cause of just word choice than any other. I will apologize for being elusive on more serious issues. I probably could have caused less confusion if I had not specifically tried to avoided answering questions about states of the world. Do you agree?
I find this a fascinating assertion. What other harms do you imagine might be unevaluatable?
Who would compensate them? Whose benefit is it for?
I do not really understand your questions. Can you define ‘who’ ‘them’ ‘whose’ and ‘it’? Would, compensate, benefit, is, and for I get.
Not sure if serious. Just in case you are, however: ‘them’ is referring to the people doing financially unrecompensed work in the home. ‘it’ is the financially unrecompensed work in the home. ‘Who’ and ‘Whose’ are up to you to define—that’s why they’re phrased as questions, dontcha know.
I am trying to be clear about the fact that the ONLY part of this thread I care about was the use of the word ‘innocuous’. All these other questions are good questions that people are asking, and answering, for themselves, and for other people, every day. Which I have no quarrel with.
I do not want to answer these questions for other people. This question:
is an excellent question that I actually do not want to answer, because noone has acknowledged that my point about the word innocuous is valid or valuable criticism. All the feedback I have seen so far dodges this small point to ask me much tougher questions about how individuals should be making these choices.
Why me? I make no assertions other than that the word ‘innocuous’ in that specific argument suggests that the reasons their is gender pay inequity is harmless. Because I am not sure that it is harmless.
I do not want to quantify the harm, but if you want me to take a stab at it, how about this:
Do some pay inequities cause stress? Does stress aggravate some mental disorders? (for the record, I am not trying to suggest that this harm is greater to either gender!)
Point the first—Now I’m confused. Is it that
or is it that “I do not really understand your questions.”? Or did my explanation allow you to understand that you didn’t want to answer, or...
Point the second—Hypothetically, if this:
is true, then gender pay inequities do have an innocuous explanation- namely, the above. Kaj_Sotala made no claims beyond that, certainly not to the extent of claiming the above statement is true in the real world.
This leads me to believe your point is not valid or valuable criticism. If you think I’m wrong, could you explain why?
Your explanation couldn’t possibly have cleared it up?
Well… I highly doubt it, both because the original ‘confusion’ seemed blindingly obvious to me and because
indicates to me something other than “Oh, so that’s what that was about!” In fact, it seems more along the lines of “Your clarification was not needed because I was missing the point intentionally.”
But in the interests of being as charitable as possible, I have edited my reply.
Than you for making clear that you do not agree that my point is valid or valuable criticism.
My objection to the word choice of harmless is based on my feelings, which I have not fully examined, that there may be harm.
Hypothetically, I agree with you.
I think I am having the most objection, in the statement you quote, with the phrase ‘mostly attributable’. I can think of several other reasons that can and do account for a gender-based inequity, all possibly innocuous. The one that springs to mind is something to do with women and negotiation of payscale, but as I look for resource that can explain what I mean by that more clearly than I have managed to, I came across another interesting theory on wikipedia, that I had never heard of before. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equal_pay_for_women#Different_Studies_and_Economic_Theories
“They interpret their findings to suggest that employers are willing to pay more for white male employees because employers are customer driven and customers are happier with white male employees. They also suggest that what is required to solve the problem of wage inequality isn’t necessarily paying women more but changing customer biases.”
This difference does not seem so harmless. Do you agree?
I think this might be confusing pedanterrific because if I read you right above you don’t agree with him. I thought your position was similar to the one I made here that that explanation of pay inequality, even if true, is not innocuous because the reason why men and women make different choices about work and home life could be harmful social pressure, or some other reason that we don’t think people should have to face in an ideal world. But I could have misread you when you wrote this:
Mostly I was not sure what pedanterrific was arguing, but I asked him to clarify, and he did. I am often unintentionally funny to other people. Lately I am getting better at understanding what the ‘subversion of expectations’ I am committing.
I absolutely agree with your point, but I was not conscious of why the word innocuous bothered me when I made my comment, and I don’t actually know if I read your comments before this moment. I don’t always read every comment before I respond, and I don’t ‘notice’ consciously everything I do read. Confusions galore!
Yes, of course. That’s trivially true and not in dispute.
I still think you’re rather missing the point, however. I don’t see how it makes sense to object to the phrase ‘mostly attributable’ when that’s a premise of the hypothetical. Let’s look at the original comment in context:
That is, IF [the difference is mostly attributable to something innocuous], THEN [denying population-level differences seems harmful]. That’s all that was said. Kaj_Sotala never claimed the innocuous explanation was true.
Editeditedit: I apologize for my horrible social skills.
Your ‘horrible social skills’ are almost as funny as mine! no apologies necessary! And your edits are a vast relief to me personally.
let me just say that ‘like, really?’ comes across as dismissive of all my efforts to explain what I care about, in the context of my original remark, and why I care about the word ‘innocuous’ in the hypothetical statement.
I am generous to assume that are not trying to crush my will to respond with irony, and are seriously confused.
But it is more difficult for me to maintain this generosity of spirit after you have already dismissed something relevant to the hypothetical argument and my objection to the word ‘innocuous’ as ‘trivialy true and not in dispute’.
And I am totally willing to maintain at least a pretense of generosity of spirit, because I have plenty of experience with losing my generosity of spirit, and I know that it keeps growing back.
But I wasn’t faking any enthusiasm or bewilderment before I read your comment with those two apparently dismissive word choices. “trivial” and “like”.
Do you believe me?
When you say:
I’m reading you as actually being sincerely grateful but I’m guessing pedanterrific read you as being sarcastic.
...Oh. I think my sincerity detectors might be broken.
No, it set mine off too—I avoided the error only by paying attention to the tone and attitude of the rest of her comments (which make sarcasm coming from her [assuming her based on gender conventions around the phonetics of the handle] look very unlikely).
No, I am sure that they are normal, and partly because my mental problem which I have mentioned elsewhere, includes depression. In person, it is very hard to tell if a depressed person is sincere or sarcastic, I just wasn’t aware until now that this problem (I think call it ‘affect’?) is something I also ought to consider in a pure text situation.
In person I usually fake enthusiasm, but I am fortunately not that good at it. <--serious and funny, yet again. at least it was intentional.
I edited my previous comment to make my meaning clearer. Note that it’s only about that one quoted line.
Terminology confusion. See What is a trivial truth?. What I meant to say is,
describes a difference that is definitely not “harmless” no matter what the rest of your argument states. By “not in dispute” I meant “I agree with you, and was not aware that you thought we disagreed on this subject.”
OK, I think I finally understand.
What was said was:
One common explanation of harm and utilities is that the “real” or important utility function held by a human is that implied by the humans actions. If a human chooses A over B, that means to the human A has a higher value than B to the human. This runs us into problems, for example when humans choose B over C and C over A, but there is no agreed upon way to discuss the relationship of humans to utility functions. We just don’t know how to extract the human and cut the nonsense without cutting the human! This is despite extensively discussing extrapolate volition. One way to get people to actually choose consistently among A, B, and C is to teach them about this paradox, but let’s just say for our purposes here that it’s clearly not out of line to discuss people’s “true” preferences being something other than what they choose.
Vaniver: Ok: let’s suppose he intended the primary definition of innocuous, “not harmful.” If a choice is made voluntarily, then by the assumption of revealed preferences it is the least ‘harmful.’ If we forced women to choose with the same distribution that men do, then on net women would be worse off- i.e. harmed by our force.
Clarica: I think that calling the choice to spend more or less time doing financially unrecompensed work in the home an innocuous gender difference, is careless. The harms of the various choices have not been evaluated that well.
One issue is that language is flexible, and it is common to see “innocuous explanation” as a way of discussing the motives of a person causing the things the explanation explains, rather than according to the usual adjective-noun relationship where the adjective modifies the noun.
For example: a video teaching “how to fold a shirt” with the audio 50 decibels is a harmless explanation. The same video with the audio at 125 decibels is a harmful explanation.
No one argues that the explanation itself would have only good consequences, the discussion is instead what sort of harmlessness is meant instead. Whether the author’s intent is clearly that, if it is discovered that women’s actions alone cause the statistical difference, i) employers are doing no harm in the hypothetical case, or ii) if a similarly plausible interpretation is that no one is suffering harm, for had they chosen as men, there would be no disparity.
Context points to the first explanation as the best contrast with “discrimination”, what employers are allegedly doing, and what hypothetical evidence would clear them of, but it’s easy to see why someone intending the second point might have used the same words.
The sentence might be rewritten: “But if it is, then denying any population-level differences between men and women seems harmful, because it implies that something fully explained by innocuous behavior is because of discrimination.”
The principle of charity protects us in similar cases where we happen to only see one interpretation and it is the wrong one.
I feel like this is an accurate, thoughtful, and generous explanation of the confusion I have and the confusion I cause. If I could spend my few measly karma points upvoting this, I might!
After I read it, because it’s late, and I can not take it all in right now. And I’m grateful for the effort, and the clarity of the parts I already understand!
Why was this downvoted?
If I had downvoted it, it would be because I can’t really imagine reading “Who would compensate them?” and responding “Can you define ‘who’?” as a serious attempt at communication.
And you call yourself pedantic? There were a number of referents in my comment which could have applied, and while I usually feel at no disadvantage in a battle of wits, I have a mental problem that either renders me easily confused, or fully aware that I am not a mind reader.
This comment is supposed to be serious and funny. Can you guess which parts I think are funny, and why?
Ready for some meta-meta-irony? At the time I chose the username, I actually wasn’t aware that “terrific” is a word people commonly misspell.
At this point I’m afraid to try.
Actually, ‘this comment’ was self-referential. The comment you reviewed was intentionally serious, and unintentionally ridiculous. I get that a lot.
But ridiculous is funny, and I totally agree with your last judgement of funny, and wish I had noticed that it was funny, BEFORE I posted. I am trying to get comfortable with being accidentally funny.
I should really just stick with a pretense that everything funny I say is intentionally hilarious, instead of just occasionally patently ridiculous. Apparently.
When asked “who” would do something, asking for a definition of who is an interesting move.
Pedantic, but I think what everyone has been talking about is assigning the referent of “who”, not defining it.
You rang?
(That’s what lessdazed is talking about as well.)
Heh, didn’t mean to call you by name.
I know that’s what everyone was talking about—I was just clarifying because it can be read more strongly than it should be.
Apparently so. Can you explain why it is interesting?
Edited to add: I assume you may be trying to explain what is interesting about my comments in the more serious and complicated response you may still be working on, but of which I have only seen the placeholder. I’d say that I can’t wait, but I have already had to...
In the self-referentially intentionally funny comment I make above, I was absolutely serious about having a mental problem. And about being easily confused. And about being painfully aware that I am not a mind reader. Absolutely intentionally serious, and, for a change, intentionally funny at the same time. Irony is LOST on me. or everybody else, and I have no way of telling which!
Someone (Eliezer?) once said something like: if you tell me exactly what it is that an Artificial Intelligence can’t do, I can build an AI to do exactly that. If a person who believes in a fundamental difference at that sort of level between machines and animals can precisely define something, a computer can follow that definition.
It doesn’t work quite as well here. But if someone gives a good enough answer for their question of “who”, with exactly why an animal wouldn’t count, or a computer, or a corporation, they may make their question so complicated that it only has one answer or no answers as asked.
Ah. I am abnormally careful about the question of ‘who would’ do something. People often take my serious suggestions as playful, and vice versa. I no longer recommend a new hairstyle to anyone because I have given this advice three times, it was always taken, and I only liked the results without qualification once.
I may be paranoid, but I do not like to worry about this. <-- also intentionally funny. I am trying to not to worry about whether it is true. <-- Also funny.
I am taking medication for insomnia. Seriously.
So am I! But it’s not working very well, hence my being awake at this hour.
Heh, when arguing for the case that people should be careful with their wording, I’m challenged for a careless choice of wording. :-)
Innocuous in the sense of emerging from different-gendered people on average having different preferences and on average making different choices as a result. Me eating french fries every day, because I want to, is an innocous reason for eating french fries every day (though such behavior will probably cause health problems in the long term). Eating french fries every day because somebody pressures me into doing so, or because I genuinely can’t afford anything else, is a non-innocous reason.
I absolutely agree that there are many statistical differences between men and women, and trying to deny this is actually ludicrous, whether or not it is harmful!
However, I object to the word ludicrous, because while I agree that there are statistical (as well as biological and almost certainly evolutionarily-based cultural) differences between men and women, the assumption of harmlessness, based on that claim you’ve often heard, suggests that there is no bias involved other than personal choice. And personal choice is biased by so many other factors!
And, though I did not make this clear, I was not trying to suggest that the harm was one-sided.
The thing about bias was difficult for me to argue specifically until I explored the matter of pay inequity and the current state of research. Over the years I have heard a lot on the subject, which I do not remember that well.
Because though it is no trivial matter to me personally, personally, If I can’t identify a personal or cultural bias as actually causing me harm, I don’t get that excited about it. And frankly, if I haven’t identified what I should do about it, I try not to get exited about it if it is causing me harm. There are plenty of people in the world much more inclined than I to actually address the problems of gender-based pay inequities, which I think is a good thing.
It pretty much seems clear to me that a lot of men care more than women about getting a big pile of negotiable tokens. Statistical. Why women do less about getting a pile of negotiable tokens, I already understand. Some of this understanding of women may be visceral, or biological. I’m pretty sure most of it is pretty self-aware, or rational as well.
Why men care more I don’t understand as viscerally, but I am actually trying to understand better because I would like a bigger pile of negotiable tokens to play with. :)
Suppose lukeprog put it in the ancestral post.
“Clear from the context” seems like the heart of the matter, here. If it can be clear from the context that when someone says “men and women are equal,” then mean the most sensible interpretation, then it seems similarly clear that a generalization with neither “some” nor “all” specified should be assumed to mean “some,” not “all.”
That’s still insufficient context: to be able to give a definite answer, I’d need something like the paragraph the sentence was contained in.
Indeed. For what it’s worth, my prior for people misinterpreting “men and women are equal” is lower, though still not neglible, than my prior for people misinterpreting “all men want”. But again, depending on the context either interpretation for either sentence could be blindingly obvious, not obvious at all, or anything in between.
“Taboo” itself actually sounds about right, although it carries connotations of low value that may not be what you’re going for.
I misread what you meant. Sorrry for adding noise.
Yeah, I’m familiar with Rationalist Taboo, and I was looking for a substitute for “politically incorrect” fitting the description provided. “Taboo”, in its sense of “culturally forbidden” rather than its sense of “party game about avoiding words”, is what I came up with. Sorry if that lacked clarity.
There are several reasons to play Rationalist Taboo, though; I’d assumed that the grandparent wanted to drop the phrase mainly because of its political loading (which seems to be causing some problems here), not because of any implicit assumptions or ambiguity of definition that needs to get aired out. In which case brevity would be no sin.
Precision is a way of fighting availability bias—if all you see is “women are shorter than men” because most women are in fact shorter than most men, then it can be hard to remember that there are women who are taller than most men.
Agreed; this is also important.
It also seems to lead to treating actual examples (say, of taller women) as irrelevant, simply because they’re in a numerical minority.
If this was applied consistently for all low status groups I wouldn’t mind it.
I’d certainly prefer it that way myself, and try to implement that in my approach to such discussions.
If your objection is over our perceptions of which groups are low-status and in what contexts, say that.
I’m not saying I object (at least not in the way some have). What I’m implicitly refering to is that these kind of usage disputes only ever arise when it comes to gender relations.
Can’t speak for anyone else, but I’ve brought this up re: race and sexual orientation as well in conversations on this site. I don’t go looking for it, so the conversation usually has to be fairly current (ie, comments are showing up on the sidebar or it was recently posted to Discussion).
In general I don’t start conversations about such things here because I’m well aware my own beliefs and perspective on issues like this are in the minority on this site, and if there’s one thing I don’t need more of in my life it’s arguing with a population comprised mostly of wealthy, white Libertarian-esque cisgendered/heterosexual men whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot.
I’m much more apt to get involved in an existing conversation when some comment grabs my attention and I feel able to reply (or provoked to annoyance by it—that happens). I critique what passes into my attention, assuming I’ve get the energy and wherewithal to get into what will most likely be another unproductive argument about it (unproductive because apparently it just feels like mind-killing politics to many of the posters here, who don’t have some hands-on experience with being in a social minority and are not apt to readily grasp the difference between “I am angry/hurt by this AND think it is incorrect” and “my disagreement is purely emotional”).
Downvoted for formulating the question in a way that treats vaguely defined classes of ideological transgressions as having an independent Platonic existence, implying that their properties should be discussed as if they were independently existing elements of reality, rather than a matter of definition. (And in this case there isn’t even anything resembling a standard, precise, clearly stated, and consistently used definition.)
Platonic?
If I step on your toe unintentionally, and you’re in pain, just because I don’t feel that pain (it wasn’t my toe) doesn’t mean that any harm done occurred either in a Platonic sense or not at all. It sure as heck doesn’t mean that you’re an ideologically-motivated, irrational zealot for getting mad when my response is anything other than “Whoops, sorry.”
I do not think we share sufficient premises to make discussion worthwhile.
Whether you feel pain or not is a fact. It’s territory, not map.
Whether someone is racist/sexist depends on definitions. These are categories—which are map, not territory.
I’d guess that whatever value is derived by arguing over whether someone is racist or sexist can be produced better by tabooing those words, and arguing more specifically over what the specific claim is (“would his words be offensive to a significant number of member of such group” “is he trying to increase his own group’s relative power/privilege over the other group”, “does he believe in an innate inferior moral worth for that group”, etc, etc)
Back in the days when incorrect beliefs about the trinity could get you into trouble, it became heresy to doubt that Jesus was god. Shortly thereafter some people stopped believing he was man, which in due course also became heresy. Much drama ensued on the question of whether Christ was cosubstantial with god, or consubstantial with god, and whether the holy ghost proceeded from Christ, or God, or both, and whether God was three or one or both.
Discussions of racism are apt to develop a similar character.
On a conservative blog, the blogger will say something politically incorrect, which in less right wing circles would be deemed “racist”. Then one of the commenters too plainly says something horribly racist, which is clearly implied by and logically follows from the original post on which he is commenting. The right wing blogger, of course, firmly denies his post has such horrid implications, denounces the commenter as disgustingly racist, and bans him.
However, in the historical discussions of the Trinity, the opposing sides at least made it clear what exact beliefs they considered as orthodox and which heretical, and spelled out the criteria for orthodox beliefs and their official justifications at length, always ready to elaborate still further if any details remained ambiguous. (However arbitrary and illogical these official justifications may have been.)
In contrast, in the modern discussions of racism, sexism, and other ideological transgressions, it is never spelled out explicitly and clearly what exact beliefs one is supposed to profess to remain orthodox. Rather, there exists a pretense that there is a certain set of beliefs that will be accepted by all people who are not malevolent or delusional—and if you ask for a precise and clear statement of what exactly these beliefs are (and let alone how they are justified), this is by itself considered as strong evidence of ideological transgression, since only a malcontent would ask so many annoying questions about things that are supposed to be plainly obvious to sane and honest people.
A clear and explicit list of official doctrine that it is forbidden to question, such as the those pronounced by various parties in historical trinitarian disputes, is at least honest and upfront in what it demands. What we see today however is the utterly mendacious and delusional insistence that the official doctrine is a product of pure rationality and free thinking that can be denied only out of insanity or malicious dishonesty.
On the other hand, the long lists of condemned theses, censured theses, and prohibited articles of the thirteenth century gave no real indication of what was not condemned, not censured, and not prohibited.
I think that the differences you perceive are because the analogies you and sam0345 make to “religious heresy” are really really bad ones. Christ wasn’t truly around to be offended or not offended if someone got his nature wrong. Demanding adherence to a particular theology was basically just a demand by the church for complete monopoly of thinking. Disagreements about the nature of Christ were effectively attacks on the authority of the church.
The best modern-day analogy to such issues of religious heresy, are probably the intra-Communist squabbles about Stalin and Trotsky and Mao and revisionism and whatever...
But in regards to racism and sexism though, it’s not about lowering the status of institutions like the Church or the Communist Party, but about lowering the status of groups of actual people. It’s a much more… decentralized defection, and similarly it gets a much more decentralized punishment—in Western states there’s no single “punishing authority” as there used to be in Communist regimes for defections against communist ideology, or there still is in Theocratic regimes for defections against theocratic ideology.
You are presenting an oversimplified picture in both cases, and the contrast is definitely not so clear-cut.
First, the christological and other theological controversies were often only part of much broader political, ideological, ethnic, and other conflicts, involving all sorts of parties and factions both within and outside the church hierarchy. Sometimes there was also a strong populist element—during the monophysite controversy, for example, there were plenty of spontaneous riots and pogroms. Therefore, in these controversies, the power and status of many groups and individuals was at stake, not just the interests of the Church leadership.
Second, the modern repercussions of various ideological transgressions are by no means limited to spontaneous reactions by people who feel directly targeted. For start, there is a complicated and non-obvious system that determines which groups are entitled to such reaction, so that their outrage will be supported and the offenders condemned by the respectable opinion, and which groups are OK to denigrate, so that protesting will only lower their status still further. Then, we also have a network of official intellectual institutions that have a de facto monopoly of respectable and impactful thinking, and the reaction of these institutions to various ideological transgressions involves many elements far beyond direct and spontaneous outrage of those who are (supposed to be) directly targeted.
But aside from all this, my main point is the contrast between two kinds of systems that is independent of the issues you raise:
A system in which certain beliefs are clearly spelled out as official dogma that it is forbidden to question, so if you’re accused of heresy, you can at least demand a clear statement of what exact official dogma you have contradicted—and if you have in fact steered clear of any matters of official dogma in your writings and utterances, this is admissible as a valid defense. (Historically, this was typically the case for people accused of heresy by the Church tribunals, though of course things varied a lot in different places and times and there were certainly instances of corruption and railroading, like in any other legal system.)
A system in which there is official pretense that there is no dogma whatsoever, that everyone is supposed to be a skeptical free thinker about everything, and that imposing some sort of official dogma would be the vilest tyranny imaginable—so that when you are accused of some ideological transgression, it is automatically assumed that your statements must be due to either disingenuous malice or some crazy delusion, since the respectable opinion is considered to be a product of pure rational thinking, as an assumption built into the system. So rather than having clearly outlined boundaries of what you may or may not say, you must pretend to be a free thinker unencumbered by any official dogma, while at the same time strictly adhering to the de facto official dogma—which is only more sweeping and onerous because it is so vague and not stated openly.
It seems to me that system (2) is hardly an improvement over (1).
Surely the communist party would say something similar—and indeed it did: Trotsky complained that certain speech was a violation of freedom of speech because that speech oppressed the proletariat.
I’m sure it would, because after all that was the prime characteristic of social-fascist regimes—claiming supposedly egalitarian-minded ideas for the pursuit of in-actuality the establishment of a new ruling class/aristocracy based on party membership. Much like corporate-capitalism propagandizes itself as meritocratic instead (while trying to form a ruling class based on control of stocks and so forth).
I made an image of this some time ago:
This of course doesn’t mean that all egalitarian ideas exist to support the communist party elite, any more than it means that all meritocratic ideas are there to support the corporate elites.
And is that not what is happening in America today?
No, it’s not.
I don’t think the idea can be written off so easily. This of course gets into all sorts of extremely charged issues, but in any case, considering the historical record of egalitarian ideas in general, surely it would not be rational to take the presently dominant egalitarian ideas at face value automatically.
Not to mention that for anyone familiar with the standard OB/LW motives, it should be straightforward to ask about the signaling and status issues involved. Should it be controversial to propose that, perhaps, egalitarianism is not about equality?
Cuba had obvious, striking, and severe inequality, with a strong element of racial inequality. Yet back before the fall of the Soviet Union, and for some time thereafter, visitors to Cuba tended to not only congratulate Cuba on its wonderful equality, but also themselves on being able to perceive that wonderful equality, that someone less sensitive might have failed to see.
During the hungry ghosts famine in China, J.K. Galbraith observed “If there was any famine in China it was not evident in the kitchen”. The kitchen to which he refers being the kitchen of the luxury hotel his hosts provided him.
You seem to be getting into thorny theoretical questions about the nature of modern Western culture and political ideology. I don’t really have much to add on that point.
I was just talking about a simple question of fact: that is, most Republicans would consider the appellation of ‘egalitarian’ to be an insult.
Edit: Actually, you know what? This is straight-up mindkilling, right here. So how about I just retract everything I contributed to this travesty of a ‘conversation’ and take extra care not to get sucked into this kind of thing again.
In communism, political incorrectness might get you shot, but far more likely might be taken into account when you next sought a holiday or promotion. For the most part, the enforcement of political correctness under communism was every bit as decentralized as the enforcement in the US.
Similarly with thirteenth century punishment for heresy, the main punishment being that one was unlikely to receive tenure. No one respectable got tortured or burned at the stake, though Roger Bacon got solitary confinement on bread and water.
And the enforcement in the US is ultimately highly centralized. The reason your boss will fire you for wrongthink is that when his business gets charged with racism, all his employees will be scrutinized for wrongthink. Most discrimination charges do not involve an employer calling a member of a protected group a derogatory name, but rather an employee revealing unapproved views unaware that there are spies present who will rat on him. A member of a protected group heard of the unapproved views—in some cases he would had to have been listening at keyholes to have discovered the unapproved views and have his feelings hurt, and I suspect that in fact these unapproved views were only discovered during the disclosure phase, and the complainant could hypothetically have heard them at the keyhole, rather than actually heard them.
For the most part, enforcement of political correctness under communism worked in exactly the same way as in the US—through employment and academic admissions.
I notice a glaring omission from your list of questions. Namely “are his words if interpreted as a factual claim and/or argument true and/or valid”
I agree these are helpful paraphrases—but as a practical matter increasing the burden on the person trying to point out the offense or marginalization isn’t necessarily a good idea since it often very difficult for people to call their friends and acquaintances on such matters. For example, I imagine it is very difficult for a black person surrounded by white people to call out behavior that makes them feel marginalized—there is a great deal of social pressure against this. In normal social contexts a minority should be free to express how something makes them feel without being expected to enter into an extended defense of the matter.
Here at Less Wrong, I almost always translate “is x-ist” in the way you suggest and think it is worthwhile where the goal of the discussion is truth seeking (I’m not a member of many relevant minorities, though)
And is the pain of envy and covetousness also a fact?
I would call it an attitude, not a fact.
Envy is an attitude/emotion.
Whether or not someone feels envy is a fact.
Pain is a feeling.
Whether or not someone feels pain is a fact.
Yes, Platonic—and it’s easy to demonstrate that it follows in a straightforward manner from your phrasing.
To stick with the (relatively) less incendiary of the two, consider the notion of “sexism.” Discussing whether some institution, act, or claim is “sexist” makes sense only if at least one of these two conditions applies:
There is some objectively existing Platonic idea of “sexism,” so that whether something is “sexist” is ultimately a question of fact that must have an objectively correct yes or no answer.
There is a precise and agreed-upon definition of “sexism,” so that whether something is “sexist” is, assuming agreement on questions of fact, ultimately a question of logic (i.e. whether the given facts satisfy the definition), which also must have an objectively correct yes or no answer.
Now, the option (2) is clearly out of the question. This is because the term inherently implies that any “sexist” claim does not belong to the set of reasonable and potentially correct claims and a “sexist” institution or act is outside the bounds of what is defensible and acceptable—while at the same time nobody has ever given any definition of “sexism” that wouldn’t be either so restrictive as to make most of the common usage of the term inconsistent with the definition, or so broad as to make many reasonable and defensible claims and institutions “sexist,” thus again contradicting this essential implication of the term. Also, the very fact that you talk about “arguing [...] whether or not you can be [...] sexist [...] without [property X]” implies that there exists some Platonic idea of “sexism,” since otherwise it would be a trivial question of whether property X is included in the definition.
It is trivial. Jandila’s definition of sexism and racism does not include the speaker being a bigot as a necessary criterion. Now, I often complain to my anti-subordination activisty friends that a lot of people don’t realize their definitions of racism and sexism don’t imply that. It’s a problem since people tend to get more defensive than they need to be when someone points out something they did or said that is racist, sexist, anti- gay, etc. But people getting defensive after they know these words don’t imply bigotry really is silly. And yet it still happens—which is why Jandila doesn’t always have the patience to deal with it.
That’s because words like “bigot, racist, sexist, anti- gay” are frequently used to sneak in conotations that the argument in question (and by extension the person making it) is somehow immoral and can be dismissed without looking at its validity, or at the very least requires us to engage in motivated continuation until the argument has been “rationally” dismissed. If you and Jandila don’t mean to sneak in these connotations, say so; however, in that case you should probably pick a word that doesn’t have these connotations in common usage.
I didn’t mind being told my behavior pattern matches with that of bad people’s by people who I thought think probabilistically.
If someone were to see me handcuffed in the back of a police car with blood all over me, they should think me more likely to have killed someone than if they hadn’t seen that. If they concluded I killed someone because they saw me there, they would just be stupid.
Scary thing is: The jury is made up of these people!
All I really need is for two (Asch conformity) of twelve regular people who accept stupid arguments to accept arguments I am not guilty, or one nut juror, or one intelligent juror.
I am reticent to discuss this without there being any object level issue—I don’t trust either side’s claims about how these words are ‘frequently used’. I would be comfortable evaluating a specific instance of the use of these words but I suspect discussion of how they tend to be used will just leave people insisting on generalities that flatter their own ideology. Both sides have ways of framing the other’s rhetorical techniques as harmful and destructive to honest communication. And both sides are often oblivious to what the other side is saying. Usually when words like sexist and racist are thrown out the users usually have reasons why they used those words instead of others despite (or I guess sometimes because of) connotations. But again, those reasons can’t be evaluated in abstract.
I think that the burden of proof is on those criticizing authors for using particular language.
It ought to disqualify the prosecutors from bringing such cases if there can’t be evidence to support them, so it seems to me you’re on a “side” if you think that.
Both sides are criticizing the other for using particular language. Bob says x. Susan says saying x is racist (criticizing Bob). Bob says saying something is racist sneaks in connotations (criticizing Susan).
I don’t know what you’re talking about here.
Edit: If I understand you right I guess I don’t see a justification for ‘burden of proof’ type analyses except in literal court rooms. There usually isn’t a reason for them other than presumption and status quo bias.
The criticisms are importantly different.
“Susan says saying x is racist.”
There is nothing wrong with that statement, but “arguing [...] whether or not you can be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot,” is confused, though not necessarily accusatory.
“Bob says saying something is racist sneaks in connotations.”
Bob is saying something not confused, but coherent and accusatory. “If you and Jandila don’t mean to sneak in these connotations, say so;” is unfair. Bob has to address the argument as if those connotations were not intended, even if they probably were (in his mind), or weren’t but probably are so misinterpreted by others (in his models of them), he can’t decline to address the actual argument unless he has overwhelming evidence that it was designed primarily to manipulate and not substantially to present evidence.
If it’s easier for Bob to show the argument is dishonest rather than refute it, it’s fine to let him do that if he feels it is better for some reason, and I don’t think Bob owes an explanation of how the argument was wrong or even an honest attempt to try and understand it, depending on how sinuous and sinuous it was.
(...)
The problem is that without the connotations associated with the word, Susan’s statement doesn’t even constitute a counter argument.
Susan’s statement isn’t supposed to be a counter argument, just an argument. (When I described the situation above I could have as easily started with “Bob does something racist” instead of “says. She may or may not have a propositional disagreement with what Bob said.)
[And now we have two threads about Bob. He is apparently both a racist and terrible with women.]
The presumed purpose of the statement is to criticize Bob’s argument and/or action. To do this it relies on the connotations of the word “racist”.
It relies on the implication that the user of the word frowns on racisms and that other people ought to as well. This is different from the connotation that someone who does something racist must be intentionally bigoted or some kind of secret white supremacist. The difference is that the first is merely a normative implication that is obvious to everyone while the second suggests additional beliefs about Bob that are being snuck in but not officially defended by anyone.
That’s still sneaking in connotations unless deserving to be frowned upon is part of the definition of “racism”. However, in that case Susan needs to establish that the action and/or argument deserves to be frowned upon in addition to satisfying the other parts of the definition of racism to justify her claim that the action and/or argument is indeed “racist”. Notice that what you called “defensiveness” in the comment that started this sub-thread is simply Bob pointing out that she hasn’t done so.
Essentially Susan is trying to argue that Bob’s action and/or argument is racist and hence by definition bad. This argument runs into the problem Eliezer discusses in that article.
Too many guards were facing the wrong direction until now.
The problem isn’t so much that connotations may sneak in, it’s that relevance may sneak out. That’s why I said some things were confused and not even an argument: the key step was that a label applied and everything with that label was invalid, and that thinking something is an argument doesn’t make it so be it sentences or even a string of arbitrary characters, and so on.
It’s too difficult and too costly in terms of accusations made and inferences drained from language to zealously guard against bad connotations.
No, it’s merely an assumption in polite society. Bob is free to say that he doesn’t care that he’s being racist—but that is not what he is being defensive about.
The defensiveness is in response to the connotation which Jandila at the very start of the thread disclaimed:
There is a connotation that doing something racist or sexist means you’re intentionally trying to hurt people, that you’re a bad person instead of just making a mistake or being ignorant. When I say there is an implication to the word “racism” that my activist friends aren’t paying attention to I’m talking about that not the implication that a racist statement shouldn’t be said. Note, those activist friends consider everyone a racist, themselves included.
You’re still trying to sneak in connotations, notice how you seem to be trying to exclude the possibility that a statement you describe as racist could actually be true, or that an action you describe as racist could actually be rational.
Also, why are you getting so defensive about my pointing out that you’re sneaking in connotations? There is a connotation that sneaking in connotations or exhibiting some other bias means you’re intentionally trying to mislead people, that you’re a bad person instead of just making a mistake or being ignorant. Note, people on lesswrong consider everyone biased, themselves included.
I don’t notice how I seem to be doing it, actually.
Clever. It’s actually a good analogy. I’m really not getting defensive, just frustrated that you seem to be misunderstanding me (which is weird because I thought your original comment understood me perfectly).
The statement I quoted:
seems to imply that the only reason one would make a “racist” statement is either out of a desire to hurt people or out of ignorance.
One difference is that the definition of bias as used on lw does explicitly include the requirement that they provide incorrect results, as such I’ve been providing you with links to the relevant lesswrong articles.
One reason I did that is so you could see how annoying arguments of the form:
“Why are you getting so defensive about my accusing you of bad thing X, X doesn’t imply worse thing Y?”
are when you’re on the receiving end of them.
What if someone thought that even with the connotations associated with the word, it still wouldn’t constitute a counter argument?
Then why did Susan make that statement at all?
Any arbitrary string of characters djRX3YeKTQUw BdIml13Ep6vAqa8WdflzY 7adQKSEXDp0paMg7K87 pKw4CCey C068tqagUkSs7H7HsCZdA 84MaxAJr4VwIV28tASRPcDO1Wtv1Oh02DTyFyaM PcAOPJ2CLBnztEG6 4kvjZ3aTKHEcPMN2gjOjzuWB pdzmu9hPRQnmYEJZ Uy6Q96cIkguaYbgwJcte
Is that a ponycode?
It’s ponycode for:
“may subjectively be considered a counterargument but that doesn’t make it important. The statement was made because it was intended to make a certain point, even though its mechanism was to exclude things from consideration based on a labeling criteria too many steps removed from truth.”
Btw, Could you provide your definition of “bigot”? I’ve gotten a vague idea of what you mean by the word from context, but I’d like to see your formulation. (Note: be prepared to explain why being a “bigot” is obviously a “very bad thing”.)
Wikipedia looks fine:
I am not so prepared—though it doesn’t seem especially controversial to me I am vaguely open to an argument that it isn’t obvious. But I don’t see why I should be expected to explain why.
So if I believe that, say, religion X is wrong and its teachings are immoral, do I qualify as a bigot under this definition?
Only if you are therefore hostile to its members.
Depending on what you mean by “hostile” that may be a perfectly reasonable course of action.
Thats a unique example in that definition, that, in retrospect I should have perhaps left out. Unlike the other groupings religion partly consists in beliefs and values which I think it is often important to be hostile to. Those beliefs and values are closely tied to the culture of a religion which I don’t think people should be hostile to. I would not call someone a bigot for criticizing, mocking or insulting the beliefs and values associated with a particular religion. Doing the same to the people themselves or the culture, purposefully, and not the result of merely being uninformed or temporarily blinded would make a person a bigot.
What exactly is the criterion for being an element on the list?
Obviously it’s specific contents are political and I don’t necessarily think it is complete (or as we seen without mistakes)-- but the criteria for an ideal list is something like ‘classes of people that agents cannot help but be members of’.
And that’s the problem given that politics is the mindkiller.
Yeah. It’s a mess of a hard problem. Thats why I try not to talk about it here because nobody is good at talking about it rationally. I’m not defending every instance of someone calling something racist, sexist etc. I’m not defending everything the people who tend to do it nor the list of groups they do it for.
That being the case I don’t think the solution is to deny the harms people are talking about when they complain about racism, sexism etc. And it’s going to get talked about at some point just like all politics.
Nor is the solution to suppress discussion of statements that could be construed as bigoted. Even statements about race and IQ, or whether homosexuality is a sexual deviance.
To be fare, the main problem on LessWrong, as opposed to the world in general, is people engaging in motivated stopping and motivated continuation when discussing these topics in an attempt to avoid being sexist (for some reason race is less of a problem) and/or bigots.
Does this question have empirical content that constrains my anticipated experiences? Or is it just a value judgment?
I don’t think there is a lot of room or reason to discuss terminal or near-terminal value judgments. I find that criticism along the lines of “Stop valuing that, it’s a character defect” is a perfectly reasonable response to terminal value judgments that I disagree with (though I try not to penalize people for value disagreement here since people with bad values can still be insightful about factual matters).
With something like race and IQ I don’t think they should be suppressed and haven’t tried to suppress them (I have comments elsewhere lamenting such suppression). But do think it is reasonable to expect those conversations to occur at a higher level than they have so far. For whatever reason the most vocal advocates of genetic inheritance as an explanation for the race IQ gap have been worse than average commenters. A while back I linked to an article Steve Hsu wrote on the subject, he showed up and there was briefly a really good back and forth on the subject. But for the most part discussion of the subject here consists of anecdotal evidence, baseless claims and people on both sides paying no attention to the relevant studies or population genetics. It is worthwhile in these cases, I think, for people to do what they can to avoid pattern matching with something designed to demean or oppress people. Both to avoid hurting people unnecessarily and to avoid triggering mind-killing. You don’t have to sound like George Cuvier to argue for a genetic explanation of the race IQ-gap.
Edit: Though apparently we can’t even talk about talking it without the both of us being downvoted.
I had in mind something like this.
About race and IQ, that really hasn’t been a problem here.
Part of the problem is how politicized population genetics has become.
I should probably have listed as an example something like talking about PUA and whether it works, because that has caused problems here, despite being less controversial in the outside world.
Welcome to my reality. ;)
The only thing that offended me was the one value judgment in the bunch:
And I’m not offended on behalf of homosexuals but on behalf of BDSMers and kinky people who take those styles and practice them, but only between consenting adults. The rest of the piece, I think, exhibited a lot of ignorance about modern homosexual and heterosexual sex and desire and an overconfidence in historical records about romantic homosexuality. But I think you might be surprised at how similar his point is to that made by some radical queer theorists I’ve read.
They exist, but they’re mostly all tangled up in whatever hybrid of Marxism and/or postmodernism is in vogue. Add in a sprinkling of half-understood genetics, evolution, and evolutionary psychology, and it’s just a monstrous headache every paragraph.
The one I have in mind is Lee Edelman. He quotes Hegel a lot. He does philosophy from an English department and works in post-structuralism and, wait for it, psychoanalytic theory. Probably not Less Wrong’s cup of tea. He does show gay porn in his lectures, though.
Anyway, he critiques what he calls “reproductive futurism”, by which he means the norms and values that serve to continue civilization in the traditional sense: “The children are our future”, the fact that political appeals on behalf of children are impossible to refuse, heterosexual marriage, the nuclear family, and the entire political edifice he sees as built up around the idea. He sees the figure of the queer person as someone left out of this social order. He suggests that rather than (or maybe in addition to) fighting for the right to join in the social order—through joining the military openly, gay marriage, gay adoption etc. gays and lesbians should resist the entirety of reproductive futurism.
He positively quotes conservatives for accurately revealing just how it is queers lie outside the established social order. I suspect he might see the “romantic homosexuality” style in the above linked blog post as acquiescence to reproductive futurism.
[That make sense to anyone? Just trying to translate the ideas into something reasonable sounding.]
Even if they succeed in that goal all they’ll do is cause the affected culture to evolve to extinction.
This is more or less what conservatives have been accusing the gay-rights movement of being a cover for since day one.
Many comments like this one get net upvotes. Are you concerned with total or net votes? What are your net votes from such discussions? How possible would it be for you to reshape downvoted-type comments into upvoted-type comments, particularly because any one downvoted comment is unlikely to have received much of your editing attention?
Comments expressing the lament of “people on both sides” are likely to be downvoted by me. I have many similar loose heuristics, such as “vote down people arguing by definition”, “vote up people changing their mind”, “vote up people citing sources”, “vote down people who do not apply the principle of charity”, and “vote up comments in which people correctly use the word ‘literally’”.
You’re unlikely to avoid tripping any if you make multiple comments, but I think each is fair and generally the type of content I want to see gets communicated. Consequently I suggest being less concerned by total downvotes, even if your only other change is to be more concerned with net downvotes. It’s not really supposed to be possible to avoid tripping any wire any reader has.
But I don’t see you getting net downvotes, so I’m not sure if that is instead your complaint...because that would be weird, as getting a near balance of favorable and unfavorable reviews isn’t too harsh a form of censorship.
I’m concerned not with my karma total but with the net-negative karma score for individual comments. A net negative karma for a comment signals that Less Wrong does not want to see that comment. When I see net negative comments I try to figure out why. For any one comment there are lots of possible explanations for downvoting. But when I see a trend that suggests downvoting heuristics I think are bad I sometimes publicly lament those heuristics. For example, I see a lot of bad pattern matching downvoting where people say things that unexamined resemble theistic apologist arguments. Taking any position that could be considered political also seems to be subject to downvoting. Especially when that position is inconsistent with the values of the local demographic cluster. Laments of downvote heuristics seems to be a rather unpopular comment type as well. These heuristics have a chilling effect on the discussions of those subjects and partly explain Eugine’s complaint:
Fair enough as a heuristic, though I’ll note I made it pretty clear which side I thought was worse in the preceding sentences. But don’t worry about your downvote- the heuristic you used was fine by me.
Laments of downvote heuristics seem to be about why the complainer’s immediately preceding comments were downvoted.
How often are such complaint framed as laments that political allies were downvoted, much less neutrals or opponents?
If everyone writing a comment of content type X also always added spam links, I would downvote overconfident speculation about why people don’t like content X and how that makes them bad people.
Outside of threads I’m personally involved in, I try to downvote any comment which seems detrimental to the overall signal-to-noise ratio on LW. Most often that means posts which are statistically illiterate, incoherent, obviously biased, or poorly written, which I imagine should be uncontroversial. Beyond content and style, though, it’s also possible for a post’s framing to lower the signal-to-noise ratio through a variety of knock-on effects.
Usually this happens by way of halo effects and their negative-affect equivalent (let’s call that a miasma effect, if it lacks a proper name): arguments matching religious apologia too closely, for example, tend to trigger a cluster of negative associations in our largely atheistic audience that prime it for confrontation even if the content itself is benign. Likewise for comments with political framing or drawing unwisely from political examples. I don’t usually click the downvote button on comments like these until there’s evidence of them actually causing problems, but that’s sufficiently common that I still end up burning a lot of votes on them.
I submit that this isn’t a bad heuristic. It’s one that shouldn’t be necessary if we were all free from emotive priming effects, but we clearly aren’t, and exposing ourselves to many sources of them isn’t going to help us get rid of the problem; in the meantime, discouraging such comments seems like a useful way of keeping the shouting down.
If someone is going to be pulling a thread dangerously close to politics, we should expect those comments to be held to a higher standard.
What do you label with that symbol? How do you know no aspect of any of them should be criticized, mocked, or insulted?
Good point. Consider it striked.
I had assigned what felt like a 10% probability to your defending that without falling to the no true Scotsman fallacy, so I am disappointed.
Also, what do you mean by hostile?
If I believe it’s better for people not to have behavioral disorders or/and addictive disorders develop a treatment and encourage people with said disorders to take it, am I being hostile? What if I do the same w.r.t. homosexuality?
BTW, if the answer to both those questions is “no”, I have no further problem with the definition.
Treating someone like an enemy. Shrug. I don’t have a clear bright line or anything, the amount and intensity of bigotry someone must exhibit before I’m comfortable calling them a bigoted person is pretty high.
In both cases it depends on why you want people to take the treatment.
We’re now very far from what was a pretty contingent defense of another commenter’s position and I don’t especially enjoy the topic...
Replace “sexism” by “X”. Do you think this alternative is still valid?
Or maybe you should elaborate on why you think “sexism” gives rise to this alternative.
Of course it is still valid, unless X corresponds directly to some observable and clearly identifiable element of physical reality, so that its existence is not Platonic, but physically real. Obviously it wouldn’t make sense to discuss whether someone has, say, committed theft if there didn’t exist a precise and agreed-upon definition of what counts as theft—or otherwise we would be hunting for some objectively existing Platonic idea of “theft” in order to see whether it applies.
Now of course, in human affairs no definition is perfectly precise, and there will always be problematic corner cases where there may be much disagreement. This precision is ultimately a matter of degree. However, to use the same example again, when people are accused of theft, in the overwhelming majority of cases, the only disagreement is whether the facts of the accusation are correct, and it’s only very rarely that even after the facts are agreed upon, there is significant disagreement over whether what happened counts as theft. In contrast, when people are accused of sexism, a discussion almost always immediately starts about whether what they did was really and truly “sexist,” even when there is no disagreement at all about what exactly was said or done.
Of course? There must be a miscommunication.
Do you think it makes sense to discuss, say, intelligence, friendship or morality? Do you think these exist either as physically real things or Platonic ideas, or can you supply precise and agreed-upon definitions for them?
I don’t count any of my three examples physically real in the sense of being a clearly identifiable part of physical reality. Of course they reduce to physical things at the bottom, but only in the trivial sense in which everything does. Knowing that the reduction exists is one thing, but we don’t judge things as intelligent, friendly or moral based on their physical configuration, but on higher-order abstractions. I’m not expecting us to have a disagreement here. I wouldn’t consider any of the examples a Platonic idea either. Our concepts and intuitions do not have their source in some independently existing ideal world of perfections. Since you seemed to point to Platonism as a fallacy, we probably don’t disagree here either.
So I’m led to expect that you think that to sensibly discuss whether a given behaviour is intelligent, friendly or moral, we need to be able to give precise definitions for intelligence, friendship and morality. But I can only think that this is fundamentally misguided: the discussions around these concepts are relevant precisely because we do not have such definitions at hand. We can try to unpack our intuitions about what we think of as a concept, for example by tabooing the word for it. But this is completely different from giving a definition.
This only reflects on the easiest ways of making or defending against particular kinds of accusations, not at all on the content of the accusations. Morality is similar to sexism in this respect, but it still makes sense to discuss morality without being a Platonist about it or without giving a precise agreed-upon definition.
Well, morality is such an enormous and multi-sided topic that what usually matters in a concrete situation is only some particular small subset of morality. A discussion can be meaningful if there is agreement on the issue at hand, even if there is disagreement otherwise. So to take the same example again, if we’re discussing whether someone is a thief (i.e has committed the sort of immoral behavior that is called “theft”), it doesn’t matter if we define murder differently, as long as we define theft the same.
But yes, of course that discussing whether a given behavior is intelligent, friendly, or moral makes sense only if we agree on the definitions of these terms. As I said above, in practice our definitions about human affairs are always fuzzy and incomplete to some degree, so there will always be disagreement at least in some corner cases, and discussions will be meaningful as long as they stick to the broader area of agreement. However, in case of friendship, intelligence, and most issues of morality, people typically agree at least roughly on the relevant definitions, so the usage of these words is usually meaningful.
Also, when people agree on definitions, it doesn’t matter if they are able to state these definitions precisely and explicitly, as long as there is no disagreement on whether the definitions are satisfied assuming given facts. Giving a precise definition of “friendship” would be a difficult task for most people, but it doesn’t matter since there is no significant disagreement on what behavior is expected from people one considers as friends, and what behavior should disqualify them. One the other hand, when someone makes vague ideological accusations such as “sexism,” there is no such agreement at all, and a rational discussion can’t even being before a clear definition of the term is given.
the problem is that the pain is not caused by someone stepping on your toe, but by someone showing subtle but detectable signs of thinking thoughts that you disagree with.
The pain caused by someone committing thought crime against you has a more dubious ontological status than the pain caused impact upon your toe.
A typical example of this is the word “gay”, the latest polite euphemism for male homosexual, the latest of a great many. Like every other polite euphemism for anything, it has become a swear word, a swear word that unlike Carlin’s list of seven words you used not to be able to say on TV, still has the power to shock.
Indeed, as soon as one creates a new euphemism, it implies that the thing that it is a euphemism for is unmentionably disgusting, thus becomes good swear word, depriving the euphemism of the niceness that is the essential characteristic of a euphemism, while rendering all previous euphemisms for the thing (of which there are usually large number) too disgusting to speak.
The pain caused by the inevitable and inexorable transition from euphemism to curse word is fundamentally different from the pain caused by stepping on your toes. It is more like the pain caused by losing an election, or someone banging a prettier girl than you banged. The tenth commandment forbids you to experience or admit to experiencing certain kinds of pain. Not all pains have equal status as cause for complaint. You cannot help feeling pain if someone steps on your toes, but you can and should help feeling certain other forms of pain, which forms of pain are therefore less real.
The problem is that some insults (and this is currently true about those relating to homosexuality) get backed up with violence and/or with serious social exclusion—they aren’t “just words”.
Also, people don’t reliably put abuse behind them. Their reactions to threats that it might start up again are quite strong. The situation is complicated by the fact that these reactions can be amplified by social effects.
Racial Paranoia: The Unintended Consequences of Political Correctness has the thesis that, because overt racism isn’t socially acceptable but covert racism still goes on, both black and white Americans search for more and more subtle clues to whether people are racist. This looks insane, but is a rational response to a difficult situation.
It is unclear to me that those consequences were unintended.
I think you’re overestimating people’s competence, but it’s hard to tell about that sort of thing.
What’s your line of thought?
I’m not sure it’s a line so much as it’s an impression. Strategists try to reshape battlefields to give themselves the high ground. I’m not sure I can articulate anything worth updating on, but I’ll think about it and get back to you if I come up with anything.
Hmm… I’d have guessed it was less about being a euphemism and more about English-speakers wanting to have a one-syllable word instead of a five-syllable one, much like “straight” is a one-syllable word for “heterosexual”, without this meaning that hetero sex is “unmentionably disgusting”.
Even from childhood we know that pain caused by deliberate insults often hurts more than physical fights. People should not seek to take offense where none was meant—but when offense is meant, and you know it’s meant, not being hurt is often harder than ignoring a merely stepped-upon toe. A deliberate insult can linger all day in your mind when a toe is soon forgotten.
Supporting evidence: American English speakers weren’t even content with a two syllable word meaning that homo sex is “unmentionably disgusting”, and it’s been shortened to one syllable.
But the original word was “queer”… which is now not a curse after having been reclaimed.
On a tangential note, this usage of “reclaim” has always bothered me. “Queer” didn’t start out with positive or neutral connotations. It has not been reclaimed by the GLBT movement, it has been appropriated. Reclamation denotes previous ownership, something that simply doesn’t apply when you look at the historical relationship between the words that are being “reclaimed” and the groups that are claiming them, but it’s chosen for its connotations of legitimacy, since people are less likely to object to your taking back what’s rightfully yours.
I find amusing the notion of bigots launching a campaign to reclaim “queer” as an insult.
Only leftists consciously try to remake language. Conservatives do not,
This may reflect the conservative belief in naive realism, that words refer to things in the world, and are ultimately defined by pointing at stuff, primarily by mothers pointing at stuff, as in “mother tongue”. Leftists frequently believe that words create reality, hence they always start language projects.
If a rose by any other name will smell as sweet, no point in finding new words for shit. You want conservatives to say “gay”. Observe. They say “gay”, but somehow it sounds remarkably as if they saying (long, long, long list of words no one is allowed to say any more)
Before building a house, check that your foundation is sound.
The bias you have to be most careful of in this situation is availability. When claiming “liberals X, but conservatives don’t X,” I think people first run a mental search for “liberal X” and then a search for “conservative X.” But mental searches aren’t as reliable as you might wish—if in the post just above, your brain was primed with an example of “liberal X,” your mental search will be a lot better at thinking of liberal X, and so you might conclude that liberal X is much more common. Curse you, availability bias!
One way to train yourself to search thoroughly is my “magical exercise of power” (actually just an improv exercise, but assertive naming seems to have worked for the Rules of Power :P).
I really don’t think availability bias is his biggest problem.
Actually, if you spend time in a highly partisan environment, availability bias is a huge problem. One of the things people do in an effort to convince each other is invent and promulgate pseudo-experience.
If you keep getting told stories of people from group A attacking group B, and you’re a B, the stories stick with you. You’re also less likely to spend time around A’s, so that you don’t have a personal history of knowing that they might be less dangerous than you’ve been told, and you’re not likely to hear stories about them being attacked by B’s or to take such stories seriously if you do hear them.
Freedom fries.
“pro-life” instead of “anti-abortion”
“Enhanced interrogation” instead of “Torture”
”Collateral damage” instead of “Civilian casualties”
“Death tax” instead of “Inheritance tax” or “estate tax”
”Civilian contractors” instead of “Hired mercenaries”
“Freedom fries” instead of “French fries”
”Freedom fighters” instead of “Those particular terrorists we happen to support”
″illegal” used as a noun.
Do these suffice?
I’ve never heard this before. Can you point me to some evidence?
The rest of your comment seems intentionally offensive. Am I correct in this assessment?
If so, feel free to pm me with your intended message without the offensive content, if you are trying to make a point with the offensive content. I don’t know if anybody else is getting your intended message, but I know I am not, and I am curious, if you can reframe your content more constructively.
Homicide Bomber.
There are certainly other examples, but that’s the first one to come to mind.
Islamofascism, “real America”, ‘Democrat’ as an adjective as in ‘Democrat Party’, Death Tax, Obamacare.
It’s politics; people come up with this stuff for a living.
If Lesswrong were an explicitly conservative site, we would recently have been re-reading the “Enhanced interrogation v. dust specks” sequence...
Probably not. Enhanced interrogation is torture, but not all torture is enhanced interrogation. “Enhanced interrogation” implies the point is to get information, if any is available. Torture includes more acts because it includes other purposes, like fun and deterrence.
Also, it is only enhanced interrogation when you or your allies are doing it. When others do it, named or unnamed then it is torture. See here.
What does this mean?
Named is examples like China mentioned in the article. Unnamed was something like torture v. dustspecks where who is doing the torturing doesn’t figure into it.
I need to add: trying to induce a confession as China did, like trying to get information, is also “interrogation”, unlike torture for no reason, fun, deterrence, etc.
Because no conservatives have ever started language projects?
I almost admire your fortitude in repeatedly charging forward, Light Brigade-like, with material you know beforehand is going to be downvoted to oblivion for partisan mindkilling.
At this point you are coming across as either a troll or as hopelessly mind-killed. It is possible you do not fall into those categories, but that’s the impression one gets from comments like the above. Please read if you have not already done so why politics is the mindkiller.
Hm. This got downvoted pretty heavily, didn’t it. So how about some of the downvoters point out some examples of conservative projects to deliberately remodel language, in the sense for instance feminism explicitely tries to, or that whole business of political correctness.
Disclaimer: I’m not conservative, hell I’m not even American and we don’t have “conservatives” where I live. I’m asking this because the falseness of what sam said is very far from apparent to me.
People already have. See comments below.
Yawn.
Missed it due to clicking on a link that produced a single-thread view.
Same to you, friend.
I’m not your friend, pal.
Downvoting both of you for signalling contempt at each other.
Let’s try and keep the forum as respectful as we can.
Certainly. Though I admit I am a little baffled as to why I got downvoted more heavily, when I wasn’t the one who came out with unprovoked rudeness.
How do you expect people to know who was provoked or unprovoked, once you deleted your comment? If you want people to know how a discussion went, you have the option of retracting but not deleting.
I’m still wondering how you were able to delete your post after I had already replied to it.
If I understand correctly, when a page gets refreshed with a reply to a comment, the delete button on that comment is gone; but as long as one is viewing a previous state of the page, when you use the delete button it works.
Which is what I did. I hadn’t seen your reply, you made it just as I was deleting—literally, I deleted and upon the page reloading I saw the inbox thingie with your reply. I was deleting because I had just noticed that I missed all those other replies to Sam.
Which would mean, with some greasemonkey, one could have a delete button on anything I guess.
Once again guessing, I’d say that “queer” and “bent” were both at a time abandoned by the gay community (even though “bent’ is of course the actual counterpart of “straight”) because of the negative connotations of weirdness in the former case, and something that’s not in its proper shape in the latter. “Gay” persisted because it was the first name whose alternate connotations were positive (being merry/carefree).
I don’t know why “queer” became acceptable to be reclaimed again, but I’m wondering whether it’s because “weird” is not really seen as a bad thing anymore—“geek” has also become a badge of honor after all, though it once used to be an insulting word.
Geek was actually the specific term for a carnival entertainer who bites the heads off of live chickens, before it became a generic term of abuse, before it became a specific term for someone who is passionate about a particular interest.
I may never think of Best Buy’s tech support department the same way again...
Also possibly because the original meaning of “weird” has become lost, or at least outmoded, as a result of tarnishing by association with the slur. Nowadays, high school and college literature professors have to preface discussions of Moby-Dick with a disclaimer to the effect that the passage
has nothing to do with sexuality at all.
(Melville knew what he liked, I guess.)
--Moby Dick
That makes sense.
There were lots of words before queer.
I can only imagine how Roy Cohn felt during the Army-McCarthy hearings when Joseph Welch quipped that “a pixie is a close relative of a fairy”...
We already have more one syllable euphemisms for male homosexual than I can shake a stick at, each of which became a curse word, and each of which was supplanted by another euphemism. The most recent one previous to gay was “queer”.
The same usually happens with other euphemisms for other undesirable characteristics—for example “retard”.
Euphemisms do not work. If the thing being referred to was OK, we would not be looking for euphemisms, thus euphemising merely draws attention to the fact that the thing being referred to is not OK.
But very rarely is someone in trouble for making a deliberate insult. When people get in trouble for being politically incorrect, they are accused of wrongthink, not intentionally insulting any specific identifiable person.
“Wrongthink” is oldspeak. Say ‘ungoodthink’.
Also, I’m curious whether you think your assertion holds in cases where an activist organization of (Group X) is the entity that accuses a speaker of political incorrectness towards Group X.
The pain of deliberate insults occurs when Person A directly insults Person B, not when Person A denigrates group X. After all, school and University is non stop denigration of whites, males, white males, and dead white males, which has a lot to do with massive male drop out rate. So the alleged representatives of group X are not personally insulted.
I hate to get involved in political discussion, but that seems inconsistent with the data: dropout rates for men in the US are slightly higher than for women, but the difference is only about three percentage points. Perhaps more saliently, the gap appears to historically have been larger for black and Hispanic students than for whites (it still is for Hispanics), which is exactly the opposite of what I’d expect if “nonstop denigration of whites, males, white males, and dead white males” was a major factor.
And Protestants! Can’t forget those poor, persecuted Protestants, nosiree.
Seriously, where did you go to school? Cause it wasn’t where I went to school, I’ll tell you that.
My school more or less had all the teachers from the MTV show Daria. Most of those are leftist, with enormous character flaws and failures of rationality.
Fortunately I learned that reversed stupidity is not intelligence.
Marginalizing or diminishing people due to the socially enforced classes they belong to is not at all the same thing as “showing subtle signs of thinking thoughts you disagree with”.
Feeling demeaned or socially excluded is a fundamentally different kind of pain than that caused by having one’s toe stepped on: it is a much more damaging one.
Feeling demeaned is painful and can be worse than having one’s toe stepped on. But some people are allowed to complain about it, and other people are not.
It’s like saying that stepping on someone’s toe is bad, but some people by definition don’t have toes. If they claim to have toes too, it only proves their malice—by pretending to have toes they want to make us less sensitive about the pain of the real toe owners.
If you officially don’t have a toe, then everyone is free to step on your toe, because officially it didn’t happen. Other people then tell you how lucky you are for not having a toe. Then they accuse you of lack of empathy towards people who have their toes stepped on.
If you mean that there are classes of marginalized people who aren’t allowed or aren’t capable of objecting to mistreatment I agree. And I would agree that the cluster of people that cares a lot about racism, sexism, etc. often doesn’t see such people as deserving justice. When male victims of domestic violence feel excluded by feminist discussions of domestic violence which vilify men for example—I think that counts as a real harm.
But that does not mean everyone’s claim to having had their toe stepped on deserves equal respect or credibility. Claims of harm due to anti-white racism, as if it were equivalent to anti-black racism are really implausible and people taking offense to the suggestion of equivalence is reasonable. This is why I don’t agree with the anti-subordination activist’s position of privileging first person accounts of dis-empowered people when defining the scope of bigotry and injustice. I think neutral principles of some sort are required to sort out claims of injustice—but of course I don’t know how to arrive at such principles and think it is likely that any criteria I propose will be based on concern for protecting my politically favored groups. And that would be bad. In short, this stuff is really complicated and I’m not really aligned with much anyone on the subject.
The question “Is it easier to beat action game levels on normal mode, or on hard mode with an infinite ammunition cheat on?” would be ill-posed.
Sorry, don’t follow the metaphor.
Assuming it wasn’t a metaphor, it would still obviously be ill-posed though, right?
It may be that one game can be beaten by someone only on normal, but all levels but one are easier on hard with unlimited ammo. Or that one game is easier on normal and another easier with unlimited ammo on hard. One level might require 72 hours of straight gameplay to beat on hard with unlimited ammo, but such a victory might be reliably achieved, and a 9⁄10 chance of death each run on normal, with success determined by the third minute.
The metaphor is that people have different advantages and disadvantages. The one person whose challenge is difficulty conserving grenades and separating enemies to confront as few at a time as possible might have little in common with the person whose challenge is grouping enemies such that the fastest and slowest are each hit by as many of his individual grenade throws as possible.
Edit: Never mind. I got it.
That there are different advantages and disadvantages does not mean that there cannot be, on net, one group that dominates another.
Oh come on. Lot of people get beaten up for being white, frequently maimed for life. There is a whole genre of you tube videos on the topic. No one gets beaten up for being black—and very few people ever did. The fact that when you are digging for white racist attacks, you wind up with such an implausible poster boy as Emmit Till shows how hard up you are for examples.
Similarly, lots of people are excluded from university for being white and male, and worse, white and male from rural America
Which tells us:Participation in such Red State activities as high school ROTC, 4-H clubs, or the Future Farmers of America was found to reduce very substantially a student’s chances of gaining admission to the competitive private colleges in the NSCE database on an all-other-things-considered basis. The admissions disadvantage was greatest for those in leadership positions in these activities or those winning honors and awards. “Being an officer or winning awards” for such career-oriented activities as junior ROTC, 4-H, or Future Farmers of America, say Espenshade and Radford, “has a significantly negative association with admission outcomes at highly selective institutions.” Excelling in these activities “is associated with 60 or 65 percent lower odds of admission.”
I have basically no desire to have an extended discussion on this matter with someone who seems to have had their mind killed by politics (whether or not I’ve had my mind killed as well). Of particular note is second clause of
which is historically ignorant to an almost absurd point—a point I don’t think I’ve seen anyone take before. I will note that random irrational violence is almost always done by victims of one kind or another. High status people don’t get into fights as a rule. Low status people are much more likely to—this isn’t surprising when considering what kind of behaviors get selected for in a mammal dominance hierarchy. Males with few to no mating possibilities because of their low status are much more likely to risk their lives in combat in order attain higher status and mating opportunities. Alpha elephant seals with large harems don’t pick fights with the young bulls who lack harems. Obviously black people who beat up white people do not experience a substantive status change when the succeed but we all know evolved software misfires.
(Unfortunately it may need to be said that I don’t consider the above explanation for violence to be a justification for violence)
So where is your poster boy who got beaten up for being black? If you had such a poster boy, you would not be reduced to using Emmet Till as poster boy.
You will seem to be conceding what you deny.
Groups that employ random irrational violence tend to lose to groups that employ rational coordinated cooperative violence, violence that is bold yet planned and prudent, groups that display loyalty and discipline. It does not follow that that those who employ random irrational violence are violent because they lost, but rather that they lost because their violence was irrational.
Nor does it follow that those groups that lost were “victims”. If we look at Africa, it is apparent that blacks were better off ruled by whites than by blacks.
There’s no more need for a poster boy for racial violence against blacks than there is for a poster boy for historical repression of the Native Americans. Why should anyone have to come up with a single representative example when you can point to general policy?
Well into the 20th century, the Klu Klux Klan was still considered socially respectable as an institution, and being a member could even be politically advantageous.
It’s easy to take a position that’s socially frowned upon, and argue or assume that everyone who disagrees with you is too biased by social conditioning to change their minds. Easy enough to turn it into a fully general counterargument. But here of all places, I think you should keep in mind that if your position is getting a bad reception, you should strongly consider the possibility that you are either not making a good case for it, or that you’re arguing for something that simply isn’t correct.
So you are not going to let the absence of any facts get in your way.
Which presupposes that which is to be proven: That the Klu Klux Klan beat blacks up for being black, the way blacks beat whites up for being white every day.
The Klu Klux Klan made it dangerous to engage in certain political activities, especially if one was black (see the Wikipedia list of notorious Klan Murders). It did not make it dangerous merely to be black, the way it is dangerous merely to be white in any location where whites are outnumbered by blacks. Klan violence was political violence, and indeed terrorism, but it was not race hate, not the race hate that we see so enthusiastically displayed by blacks on You tube
Come to think of it, it is also dangerous to be black in any location where whites are outnumbered by blacks (the presence of whites makes blacks safer from other blacks), but it is even more dangerous to be white in such areas.
What would you take as adequate evidence? The Klu Klux Klan is notorious for having lynched and committed other acts of racially motivated violence. There’s no shortage of writers who have written about racially motivated violence against blacks as part of their personal experience. There’s no shortage of documentation. What evidence, that we should reasonably be expect to be there if a significant amount of racial violence against blacks has happened, and have access to, would be sufficient for you?
If you simply wanted to convince other members of this board that most racially motivated crime in America today is committed against whites, your best bet would probably have simply been to link them to this. But even this is a seriously problematic claim; the idea that 90% of race based crime incidents are white seems to originate here. I read the original report, and confirmed that it makes no such claim, rather, Sheehan gets that figure by classifying all interracial crime as race based crime, and comparing the number of violent crimes committed by black perpetrators and white victims with the number of violent crimes committed by white perpetrators with black victims. But not only is it absurd to suppose that all violent interracial crime is racially motivated, there are a lot more white people in this country than black people, meaning that if all criminals chose their victims completely at random, black on white crime would dramatically outnumber white on black crime. In fact, according to the report, crime among black people is more intraracial than crime among white people relative to the number of crimes committed.
The swastika on the tab for the site where Sheehan wrote the article is a pretty significant sign of a biased agenda all by itself.
But claiming that violence against blacks by whites has not been historically significant, in addition to present day race based crime being slanted in the opposite direction, that’s a really outstanding claim. So what evidence are you prepared to present?
A black man who happened to be walking down the street while a dozen Klansmen happened to be walking by in the other direction was not going to be attacked by a dozen Klansmen for no special reason other than general hatred of blacks, the way a white man walking down the street may be attacked by a dozen blacks for no special reason other than general hatred of whites.
If you count all the blacks that were attacked to be carried off into slavery, unjust white attacks on blacks probably greatly outnumber unjust black attacks on whites, but these were not race hate attacks. They attacked because they wanted someone to cut sugar cane, not because they disliked blacks.
From the absence of race hate attacks by whites, and the frequency of race hate attacks by blacks, we can conclude that everywhere in America today, the safest places for a white man, are also the safest places for a black man.
From which we can conclude that you do in fact believe that blacks on average, have worse character than whites, since you are aware that predominantly black areas are unsafe—unsafe for everyone, but especially unsafe for whites.
From the fact that Everett Till is the poster boy for white attacks on blacks, we can conclude that in all of American history from around that time to the present, there has never been a racially motivated attack on a black resembling racially motivated attacks on whites that occur every day in today’s America, because if there ever had been such an attack, you would not be reduced to using Emmet Till as poster boy.
Why bother to quote my text if you’re not going to answer the question?
You could say that there are cases where black people have attacked white people for being white, and I wouldn’t contest it. And you could say that white people haven’t attacked black people for being black, and I would be willing to concede that there is a sense in which that is true. But to say that black people have attacked white people for being white, but white people have not attacked black people for being black is simply absurd.
The reason that they can both be individually correct, but not accurate as a comparison is because it involves a manipulation of terms. I am prepared to accept the claim that black people sometimes attack white people for being white, with the implicit understanding that what this really means is “being white and being in the wrong neighborhood,” or “being white and being taken as a scapegoat for a lifetime of second class citizenship.”
I am also prepared to accept that the claim that white people don’t kill black people for being black can be said to be true in a sense; you’re not going to find a white person who’ll kill a black person for being black in the same sense that they’d kill a person for sleeping with their wife. But you can find white people who’ll go out and commit premeditated attacks on people of other races to promote their ideology of a racially homogeneous society and strengthen their allegiance to the cause. It’s called lone wolf activism. And while the Klu Klux Klan would not, as you said, attack a black man who just happened to be walking down the street, a black person could attract violence for being found in the wrong neighborhood, just like your white person in a black neighborhood scenario, or for associating too closely with white people, or being too successful, or “getting ideas above their station.” Black people were attacked for representing a threat to white individuals’ place in the social hierarchy among people who needed someone to look down on. Saying that this doesn’t count as white people attacking black people for being black, while black on white racially motivated violence does count, is a severe case of special pleading.
Stop feeding the troll.
I was thinking the same thing as Desertopia, but decided that he wasn’t worth the time it would take to type up.
I’m curious: who are your white victim poster children?
What dangers are you referring to, specifically? Can you point me to a specific source that measures these harms? I have never heard your concluding suggestion before, though I think I have heard the opposite claim.
When I walk down the street and hear footsteps I start thinking about robbery. Then I look around and see someone white and feel relieved.
Evidence?
One series of anecdotes: I’ve been the only white person in the subway car quite a few times. I didn’t check carefully, but there were few if any Asians. I’m short, I’m female, I have no reason to think I’m a scary looking person. I haven’t been attacked or threatened.
Downvoted for selecting one out of hundreds of potential effects and calling it “apparent” without a shred of evidence. Seriously, you can’t make that point without a book-length argument, and good luck getting anyone to read a book like that.
You said something like this before, and—at risk of lowering the signal-to-noise ratio further, in which case I apologize—I’m honestly curious: what’s wrong with Emmitt Till?
Edit:
Jesus Christ, I can’t believe you said that.
It seems that you are going out of your way to spread general mind-killing to this thread.
Your second point, regarding differential admissions to colleges is potentially much more interesting. The claim that there’s both directed harm and actual inefficiency resulting is a pretty strong type of argument. And you even back it up with sources.
But you start off your post with a claim that even if it were true is only marginally related to the topic at hand and is going to create a clear negative emotional reaction in almost any reader. And that claim is made with zero sourcing other than your own say so.
Depending on your viewpoint one can classify the following as either Dark Arts or as good communication: when talking to people about controversial subjects you don’t need to throw out every claim that could potentially help one viewpoint, and this is an especially bad idea when one of those supporting arguments will give a negative association to the claims in question. This is true whether or not the supporting argument is factually accurate.
Here’s an example that will be likely less controversial here. If I’m discussing evolution with a religious Jew or Christian, it more efficient to stick with the easily discussed factual issues. If they make specifically religious objections one can simply say that that’s something they’ll need to resolve and just lightly note that some people seem to be able to do it. You aren’t going to get very far if your central arguments are something like fossil record, genetics, oh and your religion is all bullshit.
Don’t mindkill when you don’t have to.
May 2011 : Greece: Fascists attempt to kill immigrants : one migrant stabbed to death, 17 hospitalized.
I (perhaps incorrectly) understood him to be speaking of within the US. Otherwise, Libya also has some significant, very recent counterexamples.
Eh, not that hard to give examples in the US either. The most recent that comes to mind. And that’s just the most recent fatality. If one extends to just people being “beaten up” the set will be much larger.
Claims must be specific and backed with evidence. The claim as he stated it is false. If he wants to limit it in scope, then let him limit it as he will, and its significance then becomes proportionaly limited in a similar way. From a claim about the world entire, it becomes a claim for about 1/20th of the global population, and thus attains 1/20th its former significance, at which point we ought give it about 1/20th the weight we otherwise would.
I want parochialism and assumptions of parochialism to have no place in this forum. If we can discuss many-worlds and if we can worry about what we’ll be doing for fun a million years from now, then people can bloody well lift their noses up to perceive there exist countries outside the USA.
I have mixed feelings about what you say here.
On the one hand, of course the whole world matters. On the other, we can make much more specific claims about smaller regions, and test them more easily.
In this particular case, I think both are overwhelmed by concerns of conversational pragmatism. If you can defeat his arguments in the framework where he made them, you win. If you make an objection outside that domain, and he says “but that’s not what I meant”, then squabbling about particularities of domain, word choice, and inference is a frequently observed failure mode. Noting and criticizing US-centrism (or any other -centrism) is worth doing, but should be considered an aside.
I am surprised that this is so severely downvoted.
The second and third paragraphs are excellent, with sources, and I have very different standards for voting depending on the speaker and what I expect from him or her. Do others not? I would encourage sam0345 to make more posts like this until they are standard for him, and then later dowvote him for such posts when posts like this are typical for him.
Upvoted.
I wouldn’t have downvoted it in isolation, but it seemed to me that, taking his other activity today into account, sam0345 was basically trolling. My habit is just to downvote that stuff until it goes away. Maybe the line between relatively high-quality trolling and needlessly inflammatory dissent is blurry...but are we really short on Brave Truth-Tellers here on LW? I submit we are not.
(Pretty short on black people, though.)
That just sounds self-congratulatory applause-lights. What’s your evidence for this claim?
I read “Brave Truth-Tellers” as a slightly sarcastic way of saying “contrarians”, which we’ve got plenty of.
Quite.
No we don’t.
Oh no, not at all, I meant it more like “Oh LW, you so crazy!” I believe we are very, very contrarian here; stating unpopular beliefs is a form of showing off (see The Irrationality Game). I am not sure what quantifiable evidence I can offer of that, but I’m far from the first to make the observation.
If it had excluded the sentence “No one gets beaten up for being black—and very few people ever did,” I would have given it an upvote without a second thought. Because of that comment, I gave it an upvote only because I think it doesn’t deserve to be at −6, and would not have upvoted it if I saw it at 0.
And by abduction: lack of empathy for people who have thorns in their side, lack of empathy for those weak at the knees, and eremikophobia (fear of sand).
When someone uses “gay” as a curse word, he is not “marginalizing blah blah blah”. He is inadvertently revealing that he thinks homosexuality is a bad thing—or inadvertently revealing that he thinks the frequent change of euphemism is an indication that most people think it is a bad thing. You are punishing him for his beliefs, not for his actions. He is not intentionally attacking anyone.
Or he could be advertently revealing that fact.
No one is saying he is. In fact, the context of this entire thread is someone saying explicitly that no one is saying he is.
Jandila:
When people say “that shit is gay” gay people feel marginalized and diminished. They feel hurt. Whether or not it was intentional (and certainly it often is).
School and university is a non stop denigration of whites, males, and white males. It is clear that males feel marginalized and diminished, which contributes to high and rising dropout rate of males, but it is more important to worry about the marginalization of some groups that other groups.
You know, you’re going to have to back up these claims eventually. Why not start now?
I’d be intrigued to see an example of an argument for the statement:
“You can’t be racist/sexist/whatever without intentionally being a bigot”
because I have never seen that sentiment expressed in my life. And I find it hard to see many people agreeing with it. Reasoning that it is false is far too simple.*
*(imagine a world where the general belief is that green people are brutish and ignorant, and should be killed on sight. Now imagine a farmer who has been told this, and believes it, and has never seen any evidence to the contrary. Has he ever made a decision of the form “Should I be bigoted? Yes I should”?)
You raise a good point, and that’s that definitions are unclear and there is little consensus on them. I’m not making my meaning explicit enough, and should probably taboo the words I’m using here.
I’ve often observed people defend themselves or others against accusations of racism, sexism, and whatever by replying that they are not intentionally being bigoted.
It’s not ridiculous to infer from that observation that many people believe that, in order to be racist/sexist/whatever, one must be intentionally bigoted.
That said, I think it’s the wrong inference. What I infer from it is instead that many people emotionally reject such accusations and grab whatever arguments they can think of to counter them, even arguments that depend on premises that many of those same people would rightly reject as absurd when phrased in the abstract.
(Comment retracted because it was based on a misreading.)
So, according to you, what is the definition of being “racist/sexist/whatever” that would allow us to draw the conclusion that this inference is wrong? And what is the reason why we should agree on this definition?
To consider a less controversial analogy, if you are accused of theft, there are multiple necessary conditions in the standard definition of theft that you can use to counter the accusation if your act did not involve any one of them. For example, you might argue that the property claim of the accuser is invalid, that the taking was unintentional or done under duress or out of life-saving necessity, that the act is excusable under the de minimis principle, etc., etc.
Now, if it often happens that there is a complete agreement on facts but there is still a disagreement on whether a given act constitutes theft, we can only conclude that the definition of “theft” is controversial and non-standardized, so it doesn’t make any sense for people to talk about “theft” before they’ve made it explicit what exact definition they apply. Which indeed may be the case—sometimes there are conflicts between people coming from cultures or milieus that have very different ideas on what constitutes a valid property claim, what counts as duress or necessity, what is excusable under de minimis, and so on. Such conflict has no objectively correct resolution, and the outcome depends on who will prevail by means other than rational discussion of facts and logic. And if it makes sense to accuse someone of theft, it is only under the assumption that there is an agreed-upon definition of theft that is clearly satisfied by the fact asserted in your accusation.
Yet unlike this analogy, you seem to believe that there is some objective sense in which someone is “racist/sexist/whatever,” despite the evident lack of agreement on what these terms are supposed to mean, or even whether they make any sense at all.
Nope, I don’t believe that “racism” (etc.) is any more objectively defined a category than “theft”, and I don’t think there’s any particular definition of it we should all agree on. I agree with you that disagreements about category membership can arise even when there’s agreement on facts, both with respect to “racism” (etc.) and more or less every other human category.
(This is not surprising, given that the way human brains categorize percepts and concepts maps very imperfectly to how we imagine definitions working; the whole idea of categories having definitions is a very poor approximation of what’s going on. But that’s a digression.)
If anything I’ve said implies that “racism” or any other category has an objective definition in the sense you seem to mean here, I’ve completely missed that implication and am likely very confused. If you feel inclined to unpack what it was I said that implies that, I’d be appreciative.
Looking back, it seems like I misunderstood your comment. Specifically, I misinterpreted what exactly the “wrongness” in the last paragraph refers to, which makes my criticism inapplicable. My apologies.
No worries; glad the confusion was easily remediable.
Why is this being downvoted?
Dunno. Didn’t cite any sources I guess. ;p
I downvoted it for the following claim:
“many of the posters here, who don’t have some hands-on experience with being in a social minority and are not apt to readily grasp the difference between “I am angry/hurt by this AND think it is incorrect” and “my disagreement is purely emotional”).”
I think it is unfair to say they do not understand when they may simply believe that motivated cognition is occurring or similar.
I tried.
Misleading-ness isn’t a property of a statement, but of a statement-interpreter pair.
So if people claim statements are misleading because some other minds will misinterpret it to the detriment of their in-group, when there is no sign such misinterpreters exist in significant number, that seems like a power grab (independent of the question of whether or not that group should have more power) at the expense of the principle of charity.
Thus wouldn’t be the case if people were leaving comments arguing against what they thought were authors’ beliefs with them wrong about the author’s beliefs, or agreeing with what they thought were the authors’ beliefs with them wrong about the author’s beliefs.
This comment is shockingly insightful and I would like to thank you for it.
Now now, insight like that might slow the evaporative cooling that has been happening on Lesswrong when it comes to gender and sexuality (and to a much lesser extent on all unPC matters). Thinkers here used to be much less burdened by this, makes even a fool hard pressed to chuckle.