Three shall be Peverell’s sons and three their devices by which Death shall be defeated.
chapter 96
The one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord approaches, born to those who have thrice defied him, born as the seventh month -
chapter 86
There has previously been some speculation that the dark lord in Harry’s birth prophesy is death rather than Voldemort. I think this interpretation just got a lot stronger.
James and Lilly had defied Voldemort but not death. The new lines back an interpretation that the Peverells thrice defied death with the three deathly hollows and Harry is born to the Peverell line.
This is, in some ways, a more natural interpretation of that clause since James and Lilly were in the Order and were defying Voldemort on a daily basis not just 3 times. The line of the Peverells makes the number three make sense rather than being arbitrary.
Great idea, but what of the rest of the prophecy ?
And the Dark Lord shall mark him as his equal
That I can’t think how to interpret it… how did Death mark Harry his equal ?
But he shall have power the Dark Lord knows not…
That could be any of love, rationality, or hope, the most common hypothesis of what powers Harry have.
either must destroy all but a remnant of the other
The remnant would be memory then ? If death defeats Harry, Harry is dead, but people will still remember him, probably for a long while, and if Harry defeats death, the memory that death existed will stay forever in everyone. Or the remnant of death would be death of non-sentient beings ?
Dementors symbolise death. Dementors can destroy humans (by their kiss), and Harry can destroy dementors (by True Patronus). That if anything marks him as Death’s equal. If not, dementors obeying him can be understood as him being Death’s equal.
Suppose that Killing Curse just bounced off the night Voldemort died, just refused to work for some reason. If “magically embodied preference for death over life” haven’t worked on someone, I would pretty much say that it means something.
Also, possible foreshadowing in chapter 5:
“I have formed an idea...” said Professor McGonagall. “After meeting you, that is. You triumphed over the Dark Lord by being more awful than he was, and survived the Killing Curse by being more terrible than Death.”
Funny to think about, but probably I just see patterns where there are none.
remnant of the other
My a bit stretched interpretation is that Bayesian Conspiracy and Chaos Legion are Harry’s remnants.
Funny to think about, but probably I just see patterns where there are none.
The part I’ve emphasized is oft called apophenia: “the experience of seeing meaningful patterns or connections in random or meaningless data.”
In this case the data isn’t random, but it may well be meaningless (i.e. not foreshadowing). I find the concept of apophenia a valuable way to understand how e.g. astrology seems so potent to so many people. Also conspiracy theories, etc. The apophenic tendencies of humans underlie many biases etc.
In the canon, the “neither can live while the other survives” didn’t really make sense to me. I was willing to buy/pretend that Infant Harry somehow didn’t count, and Spirit Voldemort didn’t count, but Voldemort spent three years in corporeal form after that.
In HPMoR universe there is a ritual for summoning Death. Unless it is an euphemism for casting area-wide avada kedavra, it could mean Death is a person. A super-dementor or something. (In a world with magic, patronuses, dementors, cloaks that can hide their owner from death… why not?)
Words “shall mark him” are future tense. Maybe it didn’t happen yet. It could happen after Harry (or someone else) summons Death. Probably after or during the magical FOOM.
(How exactly does killing the Death-person stop people from dying, I have no idea. I guess it is just another kind of magic. Or perhaps Harry will somehow stop people from dying, and the Death-person will try to stop him, e.g. by dispelling his magic.)
I like this line of reasoning. I’ve been batting around the idea that Dementors and Patronuses are essentially opposite (anti) versions of one another. Perhaps a dementor is made when someone tries to cast the Patronus Charm with entirely ‘the wrong kind of thought to cast a Patronus Charm.’
A dark ritual would explain their persistence compared to the patronuses, but it doesn’t adequately explain their number… Also, if the ritual created a dementor, wouldn’t people be saying the ritual summons a dementor, rather than Death? Most people in hpmor seem to associate the dementors only with fear, not death, and you would expect otherwise if the ritual to summon death always resulted in a dementor.
Countering that, though, most people trying to summon ‘Death’ are probably both very sensitive to dementors and incapable of defending against them, so people could be mistaking the results of a Kiss with ‘what happens when you try to summon Death.’
someone tries to cast the Patronus Charm with entirely ’the wrong kind of thought to cast a Patronus Charm
Under what circumstances would such an event actually take place?
A few obstacles:
A caster would already have been trained in the Patronus Charm (otherwise they’d not know the wandwork etc.), and therefore would be aware that there’s no point trying to cast the Patronus Charm with non-happy thoughts.
The basic use of the Patronus Charm is emergency Dementor protection, which you would not want to mess up by experimenting with alternative kinds of thought when casting.
There must be countless instances of people trying to cast the Patronus Charm in the face of a Dementor, and failing because Dementor exposure had already turned their thoughts too dark. Wouldn’t people notice if such castings could generate new Dementors?
Fair points, though a failed Patronus Charm wouldn’t always produce a Dementor if it only happened with a certain subset of wrong kinds of thought. I’m not sure why anyone might be making an attempt to cast a Patronus with a negative thought, but maybe if they use a happy thought that is at its core selfish or harmful to others? In which case, learning to cast the charm would tend to produce a new Dementor every so often as people experiment with finding a suitable memory or thought to use.
As for your last point, I suppose it would only make sense if the Dementors aren’t created at the place in which the failed casting occurs. This might be an explanation of why the Dementors seem to be concentrated at Azkaban… fail to cast a Patronus and something produces a Dementor there. Although I don’t think this is right because it seems too complicated, and I seem to recall something saying that wizards gathered/herded the Dementors to their nest in Azkaban.
Alternatively, the initial product of the failed Patronus Charm is undetected or unrecognized and only later grows into a Dementor. But if all the Dementors are rigidly controlled by the government, you might expect them to notice new Dementors being created outside their control even if it isn’t obvious what is creating them.
This might be an explanation of why the Dementors seem to be concentrated at Azkaban… fail to cast a Patronus and something produces a Dementor there. Although I don’t think this is right because it seems too complicated, and I seem to recall something saying that wizards gathered/herded the Dementors to their nest in Azkaban.
There’s also the fact that Azkaban is a small isolated island in the middle of a storm-swept sea. If by some accident of magical geography it happened to be the place where all Dementors naturally spawned, the probability of someone coming across the island AND discovering the Dementors AND living to tell the tale to the government is pretty low.
But if all the Dementors are rigidly controlled by the government, you might expect them to notice new Dementors being created outside their control even if it isn’t obvious what is creating them.
Has it been established that Azkaban accounts for all Dementors? I can’t remember any conclusive evidence in either direction.
My inference is based on the complaints Dumbledore makes about getting permission to bring a Dementor to Hogwarts and then having to explain its disappearance. You’re right, though, it implies that the Ministry makes a firm accounting of the Dementors in Azkaban or otherwise under its control, but it doesn’t really say anything about all Dementors everywhere.
Again the ghost of that statement about the wizards herding them all to Azkaban rises up… I don’t remember if that statement claimed ALL Dementors had been moved there or if it was just all the ones in Britain. I don’t even remember if that was a statement from canon or HPMoR or how reliable the speaker is.
they are considered national possessions, Harry, weapons in case of war.
Ah. I made an assumption here, but from this I got that they kept their Dementors in reserve so that they would not lose an advantage that their enemies had. But an equally applicable interpretation would be that they did not want to lose an advantage that they had over their enemies.
Keeping that in mind, however, I would rather doubt that other governments would allow Britain to have such an exclusive advantage, not when the weapons are all held out in the middle of the ocean. Though that assumes that all of the other governments don’t have their own exclusive weapons...
That ritual required quite a number more components… But then, it didn’t WORK, so perhaps Burgess and his order meant to perform the one Quirrell meant.
But it doesn’t even have to be anything super powerful, this ritual. Imagine if it really defeated Death with the capital D—people would be keen on it, wouldn’t they? Maybe it is something relatively mundane, like Comed Tea. You perform it and it automatically guides you to the nearest fatal trouble. Ideal for a HPMoR version of a Triwizard Tournament, with the prize being learning the anti-spell. I mean, it certainly seems like it will be an important thing, but that doesn’t mean we can privilege the hypothesis that it will be THE way Harry will win.
I can’t believe no one has pointed this out yet. One line differs from the HPMoR prophecy and the canon one:
and either must destroy all but a remnant of the other, for those two different spirits cannot exist in the same world
and either must die at the hand of the other for neither can live while the other survives
This has obviously been rewritten to take out any reference to life or death, and instead talking about destruction and existence. Eliezer must have done this because “killing death” doesn’t make sense. I would say 75% chance this theory is either true or discussed at some future point in the fanfiction.
I had figured that was intended to add “all but a remnant” so Our Hero wouldn’t have to let the villain die. A most cunning misdirection, it seems—I think there’s a good chance you’re right.
Although judging by “he is coming … he is here”, EY doesn’t shy away from questionably literal prophecies. (Or that didn’t refer to Harry!)
I thought that prophecy sounded differently the second time because it was actually a second prophecy, given that the end of the world is a significant enough event to produce enough time-pressure for multiple prophecies.
You mean “he is coming … he is here”? Yeah, those are two separate linked prophecies. I meant they did not, on the most obvious interpretation, refer to a literal arrival.
Just remembered a serious objection, originally from Tarhish on reddit:
I had been thinking about this possibility for a while, but now it also requires Dumbledore to have lied about Lily and James hearing the prophecy in the Hall of Prophecy. Because if they did, then it means they were mentioned in the prophecy, and this theory does not, at first thought, seem to allow that.
(from here, it’s only 4 months old, you still can upvote that)
This argument can be somewhat handwaved away by “James is ascendant of Ignotus Peverell, and prophecy talks about several possible futures”, but still.
Harry frowned. “Well, I could listen to it, or the Dark Lord… oh, my parents. Those who had thrice defied him. They were also mentioned in the prophecy, so they could hear the recording?”
“If James and Lily heard anything different from what Minerva reported,” Albus said evenly, “they did not say so to me.”
“You took James and Lily there? ” Minerva said.
“Fawkes can go to many places,” Albus said. “Do not mention the fact.”
This theory fits some lines better than others. It’s not a perfect fit, but it doesn’t require Dumbledore to have lied. Even if “born to those who have thrice defied him” refers to the Peverell line and Death rather than to Lily & James and Voldemort, the “born as the 7th month dies” certainly does refer to Harry’s birth and Lily had a hand in that. So she’s mentioned in the prophesy and would be able to hear it under either interpretation
In canon, the assignment of eligible hearers to prophecies is done by Minesty workers. Specifically, the judgment that “the one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord” refers to Harry, and thus that Harry should have access to the prophecy, was made some time after the recording of the prophecy, by a human. On the assumption that things work the same in the rational-verse, the fact that Lily and James could hear the prophecy isn’t evidence of anything other than the interpretation of the Minestry worker who handled the case.
My largest problem with the Dark Lord == Death theory is that it doesn’t really square with Quirrelmort being another super-rationalist and Eliezer’s First Law of Fanfiction (You can’t make Frodo a Jedi unless you give Sauron the Death Star). Either Quirrelmort is a henchman or personification of Death, which is unlikely considering he is afraid of dying and the dementor try to frighten him in the Humanism arch. Or Quirrelmort is not the Sauron of this story but will help Harry to defeat the main bad guy Death. This could be a really cool ending, but I doubt that it would fit in the remaining arch.
Or Quirrelmort is not the Sauron of this story but will help Harry to defeat the main bad guy Death. This could be a really cool ending, but I doubt that it would fit in the remaining arch.
Read Eliezer’s short story “The Sword of Good”. I half-expect a “The ‘good’ wizard is only playing the role and really isn’t helping make the world be a better place, while the ‘evil’ wizard is actually the righteous one”.
At this point, I think “Quirrel is secretly good, he just acts evil for his own amusement/cynicism” simply isn’t layered enough for that to really be what’s behind the mask. After all, it’s what he shows to Harry.
“Three shall be Peverell’s sons and three their devices by which Death shall be defeated.”
When I first saw this line, I didn’t think it was very important, but could it mean that Harry is actually going to use the three Deathly Hallows to defeat death, i.e. make everyone immortal?
I confess, I hadn’t paid that much attention to the possibility, because the canonical Deathly Hallows don’t seem well-suited for the purpose. But I suppose there could be some effect where when the Elder Wand is used to cast the Patronus 2.0, you get an Uber Patronus, or maybe it lets you lets you kill a hundred Dementors without depleting your own life force, or something. And I suppose the Resurrection Stone could easily get an upgrade from canon. But how could the Invisibility Cloak be used as part of the process of granting immortality, beyond hiding from Dementors? Could hiding from Dementors become really important at the climax somehow? Doesn’t seem like it, if the Elder Wand + Patronus 2.0 takes care of the Dementors, hmmm...
There is the theory that the Invisibility Cloak’s power to hide one from Death does not only apply to Dementors, but to death in general. So if you put the cloak over someone who is dying, they would stay alive, at least until the Cloak is removed and death can find them again.
It’s just another of those crazy crackpot theories floating around here, but I think it could fill in that gap in your theory.
The legend in canon says exactly that; the Peverell brother who got the Cloak was most successful, and lived a long time because the Cloak allowed him to evade death (until one day he took it off and got screwed).
I think that there’s a difference between preventing imminent death, and avoiding death. That is, there’s a difference between being in a situation where you “should” die, but you don’t, and not getting in such a situation to begin with.
And in the canon story (which may not be canon; it appears in the canon, but that doesn’t mean it’s canon), the third brother greeted Death “as an old friend”, so apparently he had the same attitude that Dumbledore had: dying after a full life is not a tragedy.
Of course he had that opinion, Rowling was writing themes so deathist that even the me of that time—who had yet to even hear of transhumanism—was thrown by it.
Voldemort is defined as evil partially just because of his fear of and avoidance of death—if you notice, she explicitly built it so that most of his atrocities occurred after and because of the steps he took to avoid death.
...Don’t get me wrong—I do realize that my interpretation sounds stretched. Trelawney’s phrasing doesn’t seem natural for describing only the events that historically happened on October 31st, 1981 …
But if you think of the prophecy as being about several possible futures, only one of which was actually realized on Halloween, then the prophecy could already be complete.
The prophecy can be interpreted in two ways: “Harry fights Voldemort” and “Harry fights Death” (ignoring more exotic ones like “Harry is Dark Lord and Quirrel is the hero”).
At this point, both positions are justified. Yes, some lines look strange if we assume “Harry fights Death” point of view, but some lines look strange if we assume “Harry fights Voldemort” point of view: just look at chapter 76. The passage above suggests this is normal.
I find myself in a doubt about which interpretation is correct, and it looks like this is exactly as Eliezer wanted it.
The one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord approaches… born to those who have thrice defied him, born as the seventh month dies… And the Dark Lord shall mark him as his equal. But he shall have power the Dark Lord knows not… and either must destroy all but a remnant of the other, for those two different spirits cannot exist in the same world. - chapter 86
Oddly, I feel like each line in this prophecy could equally well point to Dark Lord as Voldemort OR Dark Lord as Death.
Although P(Dark Lord as Death) should get a complexity penalty since Voldemort should be the default candidate due to canon.
EDIT:
The last sentence is wrong. What I should’ve said is that since Voldemort is the prophecy’s referent in canon, and he is called the Dark Lord in both canon and hpmor, I’m still assigning >50% probability to Quirrellmort being the entity referred to in hpmor’s prophecy.
Since it seems like these two explanations fit this specific piece of evidence (roughly) equally well, and we know that Quirrelmort is the entity referenced by the prophecy in canon, and that Voldemort is called the Dark Lord in both canon and hpmor, then why wouldn’t Dark Lord as Death get a ‘complexity penalty’?
Complexity means it requires additional things to happen even if you had no evidence.
For example, a more complex hypothesis than “Bob is a human” is “Bob is a human who lives at 123 Fake St.”
Voldemort being called the dark lord is evidence, and learning about new evidence does not itself make a hypothesis more or less complex. It’s just evidence.
You seem to be saying “A is more complex than B means ‘if A then B’ ”, which is not true. The commonly used term for this is “strength”. “Bob is human who lives at 123 Fake St.” is strictly stronger than “Bob is human”.
You are talking about prior probability. P(Dark Lord is Death|no specific background information) roughly equals to P(Eliezer changes things from canon), which isn’t very large; so after updating both with a equally favorable piece of evidence “Death is Dark Lord” is still behind “Voldemort is Dark Lord”.
You can assign prior probabilities in various ways, and one of them is giving every hypothesis an appropriate complexity penalty (or you can just judge everything as equally likely, or give everything a simplicity penalty, or penalize every hypothesis according to how many people it affects, or...). Some ways are better than others, but:
1) Why “complexity penalty” should work in fiction, even in a rationalist fiction?
2) Why hypothesis “Voldemort is Dark Lord” is simpler than “Death is Dark Lord” in the sense of program length? One can argue that the former hypothesis points to the specific human from a pool of a 6 billion people (or 100 billion, if you want to consider every human ever lived) while the latter talks about some entity likely to be very basic from the Magic viewpoint.
1) Why “complexity penalty” should work in fiction, even in a rationalist fiction?
Because there will still be an infinite (countable) number of finite hypotheses which could be considered and only a finite amount of probability to divide among them, which necessarily implies that in the limit more complicated hypotheses will have individual probability approaching zero. This will be true in the limit even if you define ‘complexity’ differently than the person who constructed the distribution.
Is “A or B” more “complex” than “A”? It seems to me that it generally takes more bits to say “A or B”, but the prior for “A” should be smaller than for “A or B”. Is there something in the “assign prior according to complexity” heuristic that accounts for that?
So, there is Lesath Lestrange, an original character. Which is more likely: “Lesath thinks that Harry is his Lord” or “Lesath is a 3-level (or any specific number instead of “3″) player who wants to decieve Harry, and also he is H&C which is possible because he knows how to fool anti-obliviation wards”?
Your approach will just say “I don’t know what to make of it. We have already departured from the canon and I can’t work here” with a sad look on face.
EDIT: I re-read my comment, and it seems to be arrogant and condescending. I didn’t intend it to be so, and not sure how I should change it, so I figured I should just apologize beforehand. Your approach to assigning priors is reasonable one, it just lacking some vital parts.
I agree that it’s an incomplete measure. As you point out, we would need some measure of the complexity of divergences from Canon, which requires a more general measure.
Another way to put it would be, I don’t think it’s unreasonable in a fanfic to assign all the details prescribed in Canon a complexity of zero.
Nice idea, but how does death mark someone as his (its) equal? Surely not just by killing his friends, else a substantial fraction would be “the equal of death”, which doesn’t seem right.
I don’t have trouble believing that Harry is Death’s equal, but this doesn’t explain how he was marked by Death as his equal. The Killing Curse bouncing off for whatever reason might be the best explanation. The scar is Death’s mark, not Voldemort’s. That seems a bit...forced, but it does explain why Quirrellmort hasn’t done anything besides kill Rita Skeeter and free Bellatrix Black only to never speak of her again. Death has struck many times, and has been the focus of Harry’s rage and obsession, Voldemort has more than once faded into the background and seemed ambiguously an ally. Another reason to believe that the enemy is Death and not Voldemort is that Voldemort was defeated, as far as we know—he’s not the Lord of anything anymore—while Death most certainly still reigns.
But to look at counterarguments—what if the mark we’re talking about is not the scar at all? If the Dark Lord really is Voldemort, it’s a bit silly to think that Voldemort would acknowledge a baby as his equal. Once Harry came to Hogwarts, Quirrell certainly recognized his rationality and intelligence, and marked him, if only psychologically, as his intellectual equal. “We’re not like the rest of them, you and I...”
I’m still leaning toward the interpretation of Death as the Dark Lord, if only because I have no idea what Voldemort can pull in the next seven to ten chapters that would make him definitively the most important enemy presence in the story.
...are you seriously that sure that Quirrellmort isn’t Mr. Hat & Cloak & thus didn’t Obliviate-blast Hermione & didn’t set her up for murder & didn’t have Draco nearly killed (not to mention that debacle with the Armies), and that he didn’t have anything to do with the Troll (despite canon) & Hermione’s body disappearing (though there are serious suspicions that Harry dealt with that himself), and that the deal with the Dementor eating Harry wasn’t intentional, and that perpetuating the conflict with the bullies via the 100 House Points was accidental, and other things that aren’t outright against the protagonists (like revealing Snape to the bullies), and honestly probably more things I’m forgetting—you’re seriously that sure that he wasn’t behind any of those things that you don’t even mention them as possibilities for what he could have done?
Actually, thank you for this post. Forcing myself to think up and list all of the ways that I believe he’s acted, contrasted against what we know he’s done and given that we know via Eliezer that Dhveeryy vf Ibyqrzbeg, has eliminated some of my doubt that he was involved. It makes no sense for him to be so important and yet do so little.
There has previously been some speculation that the dark lord in Harry’s birth prophesy is death rather than Voldemort.
Voldemort’s name means “full of death”. (Maybe “thief of death”.) Perhaps Voldemort made himself a personification of Death in order to personally avoid it, seeking for himself alone what the Peverells sought for all?
Some literary analysts have considered possible meanings in the name: Philip Nel states that Voldemort is derived from the French for “flight of death,”[10] and in a 2002 paper, Nilsen and Nilsen suggest that readers get a “creepy feeling” from the name Voldemort, because of the French word “mort” (“death”) within it and that word’s association with cognate English words derived from the Latin mors.[11]
the most accurate etymology of Voldemort would be the French sentence “Vol de mort” which literally means “Flight of death” (accurate considering the murder waves he commited and as his unique power). It is quite plausible that is the real etymology of his name as J.K. Rowling herself speaks French and had taught it once. The Catalan expression “vol de mort”, also means “flight of death” or, since “Vol” may also be from the Latin root “volere” (will or desire), may mean “death wish”.
It would be slightly interesting to read a fic in which Naming was a mechanism of magic, and Voldemort chose that specific name for very good reasons. Reasons which explained why people feared the name. Maybe he stole the Grim Reaper’s power for his very own, somehow becoming Master of Death or Flight from Death or something similar, something involving an actual title with power invested into it. Neat thoughts in this area, easy for the picking. French is kind of a silly language for it, of course.
Google Translate gets me “flight of death” or “wants death”. “Flight of death” might refer to AK. More interestingly, “wants death” would make no sense in reference to himself wanting death, but it would make sense in reference to Voldemort wanting the deaths of others. There’s some possible support for your interpretation there.
A piece of evidence in favour of this idea is that Harry, in spite of Dumbledore’s warnings, has tried to interpret the prophecy and arrived at almost exactly the canon interpretation on his first try. With dramatic convention regarding the interpretation of prophecies demanding that Harry’s interpretation is completely wrong, this lends credibility to the Dark Lord Death hypothesis.
I don’t think there’s really reason to think this new prophecy must be evidence of any hypothesis made for the Trelawney prophecy(s). It’s tempting to look at all the threes and see that that makes nice things happen to the parts of your brain that are concerned with pattern recognition, but there’s no reason they have to even be referring to the same things at all. And depending on how you look at it, the simpler explanation is that they are just two different prophecies about two different things.
The time pressure explanation for prophecies suggests that it’s rare for prophecies to be about the same events. By all rights we should be focusing on the fact that there seem to have been a series of prophecies and quasi-prophetic stresses all focused on one person. This is particularly true if ‘He is coming’ and ‘He is here’ refers to Harry (or more specifically the development of his mind or spirit), but even if it isn’t, it seems Harry is a lightning rod for prophecies. That in itself might be more significant than the prophecies themselves.
Voldemort and Potter are descended from two different brothers. I’m unsure if the third had any canon children or not, but I’m now imagining Dumbledore being descended from him and the three main characters going on a Death-killing mission.
I strongly agree, but I’m still left wondering how to interpret the rest of the prophesy:
And the Dark Lord shall mark him as his equal. But he shall have power the Dark Lord knows not… and either must destroy all but a remnant of the other, for those two different spirits cannot exist in the same world.
Edit:
The prophesy still seems to be a good fit for Quirrelmort for this second half, but Death for the first half. I’m left wondering if there is some important relationship between Death and Quirrelmort that may resolve this.
We know that Quirrelmort is afraid of death (as is Harry’s dark side), and that Harry is entirely sympathetic to that view. Voldemort/Riddle/Monroe seem to have an aging effect on Quirrel’s body. Could it be that Voldemort/Riddle/Monroe have engaged in some sort of arrangement with Death to secure their own immortality? This would make the Quirrelmort character both ally and enemy of Death, and complicate the interpretation of the prophesy as well as Harry’s course of action.
How can Death leave a piece of Harry undestroyed? And it ‘must’ do so. This seems to make more sense the spirit be a comparable thing. (On a silly note, I know exactly 1 fic in which attention was paid to another part of Trelawney’s prophecy, equally vague in wording, but it was set in Rowling-verse.)
On the other hand—again paying close attention to the wording of Eliezer’s modification—it doesn’t seem to me that Death, in HPMOR, can reasonably be described as a “spirit”.
There has previously been some speculation that the dark lord in Harry’s birth prophesy is death rather than Voldemort. I think this interpretation just got a lot stronger.
James and Lilly had defied Voldemort but not death. The new lines back an interpretation that the Peverells thrice defied death with the three deathly hollows and Harry is born to the Peverell line.
This is, in some ways, a more natural interpretation of that clause since James and Lilly were in the Order and were defying Voldemort on a daily basis not just 3 times. The line of the Peverells makes the number three make sense rather than being arbitrary.
Great idea, but what of the rest of the prophecy ?
That I can’t think how to interpret it… how did Death mark Harry his equal ?
That could be any of love, rationality, or hope, the most common hypothesis of what powers Harry have.
The remnant would be memory then ? If death defeats Harry, Harry is dead, but people will still remember him, probably for a long while, and if Harry defeats death, the memory that death existed will stay forever in everyone. Or the remnant of death would be death of non-sentient beings ?
Dementors symbolise death. Dementors can destroy humans (by their kiss), and Harry can destroy dementors (by True Patronus). That if anything marks him as Death’s equal. If not, dementors obeying him can be understood as him being Death’s equal.
Yes, I was going to point out that “Make him go away,” surely marked him as a monster or source of terror in someone’s eyes.
[tinfoil hat]
Suppose that Killing Curse just bounced off the night Voldemort died, just refused to work for some reason. If “magically embodied preference for death over life” haven’t worked on someone, I would pretty much say that it means something.
Also, possible foreshadowing in chapter 5:
Funny to think about, but probably I just see patterns where there are none.
My a bit stretched interpretation is that Bayesian Conspiracy and Chaos Legion are Harry’s remnants.
[/tinfoil hat]
The part I’ve emphasized is oft called apophenia: “the experience of seeing meaningful patterns or connections in random or meaningless data.”
In this case the data isn’t random, but it may well be meaningless (i.e. not foreshadowing). I find the concept of apophenia a valuable way to understand how e.g. astrology seems so potent to so many people. Also conspiracy theories, etc. The apophenic tendencies of humans underlie many biases etc.
In the canon, the “neither can live while the other survives” didn’t really make sense to me. I was willing to buy/pretend that Infant Harry somehow didn’t count, and Spirit Voldemort didn’t count, but Voldemort spent three years in corporeal form after that.
In HPMoR universe there is a ritual for summoning Death. Unless it is an euphemism for casting area-wide avada kedavra, it could mean Death is a person. A super-dementor or something. (In a world with magic, patronuses, dementors, cloaks that can hide their owner from death… why not?)
Words “shall mark him” are future tense. Maybe it didn’t happen yet. It could happen after Harry (or someone else) summons Death. Probably after or during the magical FOOM.
(How exactly does killing the Death-person stop people from dying, I have no idea. I guess it is just another kind of magic. Or perhaps Harry will somehow stop people from dying, and the Death-person will try to stop him, e.g. by dispelling his magic.)
Ritual for summoning Death is just reference to the spell of Seething Death from one of the Lawrence Watt-Evans books.
Or the Rite of Ashk’Ente from Discworld.
Or it’s the ritual to create dementors. Quirrel says that “the spell to dismiss Death is lost” and nobody knows how to destroy a dementor.
I like this line of reasoning. I’ve been batting around the idea that Dementors and Patronuses are essentially opposite (anti) versions of one another. Perhaps a dementor is made when someone tries to cast the Patronus Charm with entirely ‘the wrong kind of thought to cast a Patronus Charm.’
A dark ritual would explain their persistence compared to the patronuses, but it doesn’t adequately explain their number… Also, if the ritual created a dementor, wouldn’t people be saying the ritual summons a dementor, rather than Death? Most people in hpmor seem to associate the dementors only with fear, not death, and you would expect otherwise if the ritual to summon death always resulted in a dementor.
Countering that, though, most people trying to summon ‘Death’ are probably both very sensitive to dementors and incapable of defending against them, so people could be mistaking the results of a Kiss with ‘what happens when you try to summon Death.’
Under what circumstances would such an event actually take place?
A few obstacles:
A caster would already have been trained in the Patronus Charm (otherwise they’d not know the wandwork etc.), and therefore would be aware that there’s no point trying to cast the Patronus Charm with non-happy thoughts.
The basic use of the Patronus Charm is emergency Dementor protection, which you would not want to mess up by experimenting with alternative kinds of thought when casting.
There must be countless instances of people trying to cast the Patronus Charm in the face of a Dementor, and failing because Dementor exposure had already turned their thoughts too dark. Wouldn’t people notice if such castings could generate new Dementors?
Fair points, though a failed Patronus Charm wouldn’t always produce a Dementor if it only happened with a certain subset of wrong kinds of thought. I’m not sure why anyone might be making an attempt to cast a Patronus with a negative thought, but maybe if they use a happy thought that is at its core selfish or harmful to others? In which case, learning to cast the charm would tend to produce a new Dementor every so often as people experiment with finding a suitable memory or thought to use.
As for your last point, I suppose it would only make sense if the Dementors aren’t created at the place in which the failed casting occurs. This might be an explanation of why the Dementors seem to be concentrated at Azkaban… fail to cast a Patronus and something produces a Dementor there. Although I don’t think this is right because it seems too complicated, and I seem to recall something saying that wizards gathered/herded the Dementors to their nest in Azkaban.
Alternatively, the initial product of the failed Patronus Charm is undetected or unrecognized and only later grows into a Dementor. But if all the Dementors are rigidly controlled by the government, you might expect them to notice new Dementors being created outside their control even if it isn’t obvious what is creating them.
There’s also the fact that Azkaban is a small isolated island in the middle of a storm-swept sea. If by some accident of magical geography it happened to be the place where all Dementors naturally spawned, the probability of someone coming across the island AND discovering the Dementors AND living to tell the tale to the government is pretty low.
Has it been established that Azkaban accounts for all Dementors? I can’t remember any conclusive evidence in either direction.
My inference is based on the complaints Dumbledore makes about getting permission to bring a Dementor to Hogwarts and then having to explain its disappearance. You’re right, though, it implies that the Ministry makes a firm accounting of the Dementors in Azkaban or otherwise under its control, but it doesn’t really say anything about all Dementors everywhere.
Again the ghost of that statement about the wizards herding them all to Azkaban rises up… I don’t remember if that statement claimed ALL Dementors had been moved there or if it was just all the ones in Britain. I don’t even remember if that was a statement from canon or HPMoR or how reliable the speaker is.
It’s just the ones in Britain, I understood.
Ah. I made an assumption here, but from this I got that they kept their Dementors in reserve so that they would not lose an advantage that their enemies had. But an equally applicable interpretation would be that they did not want to lose an advantage that they had over their enemies.
Keeping that in mind, however, I would rather doubt that other governments would allow Britain to have such an exclusive advantage, not when the weapons are all held out in the middle of the ocean. Though that assumes that all of the other governments don’t have their own exclusive weapons...
Or the ritual from the beginning of Gaiman’s Sandman?
A crossover in which HJPEV meets Dream and/or Death would be awesome, if anyone’s bold enough to try to write this...
That ritual required quite a number more components… But then, it didn’t WORK, so perhaps Burgess and his order meant to perform the one Quirrell meant.
This is my headcanon, now.
But it doesn’t even have to be anything super powerful, this ritual. Imagine if it really defeated Death with the capital D—people would be keen on it, wouldn’t they? Maybe it is something relatively mundane, like Comed Tea. You perform it and it automatically guides you to the nearest fatal trouble. Ideal for a HPMoR version of a Triwizard Tournament, with the prize being learning the anti-spell. I mean, it certainly seems like it will be an important thing, but that doesn’t mean we can privilege the hypothesis that it will be THE way Harry will win.
So Harry doesn’t get to bring back Hermione then?
I can’t believe no one has pointed this out yet. One line differs from the HPMoR prophecy and the canon one:
This has obviously been rewritten to take out any reference to life or death, and instead talking about destruction and existence. Eliezer must have done this because “killing death” doesn’t make sense. I would say 75% chance this theory is either true or discussed at some future point in the fanfiction.
I had figured that was intended to add “all but a remnant” so Our Hero wouldn’t have to let the villain die. A most cunning misdirection, it seems—I think there’s a good chance you’re right.
Although judging by “he is coming … he is here”, EY doesn’t shy away from questionably literal prophecies. (Or that didn’t refer to Harry!)
I thought that prophecy sounded differently the second time because it was actually a second prophecy, given that the end of the world is a significant enough event to produce enough time-pressure for multiple prophecies.
You mean “he is coming … he is here”? Yeah, those are two separate linked prophecies. I meant they did not, on the most obvious interpretation, refer to a literal arrival.
I assumed it meant Harry’s not going to be able to reach the Pioneer Plaque. (Though I’m not sure what Harry’s remnant would be, in the reverse case.)
Just remembered a serious objection, originally from Tarhish on reddit:
(from here, it’s only 4 months old, you still can upvote that)
This argument can be somewhat handwaved away by “James is ascendant of Ignotus Peverell, and prophecy talks about several possible futures”, but still.
Frankly, this reads like a non-answer to me.
I think Dumbles is trying to tell McGonagall that he took the Potters there while letting her keep plausible deniability.
This theory fits some lines better than others. It’s not a perfect fit, but it doesn’t require Dumbledore to have lied. Even if “born to those who have thrice defied him” refers to the Peverell line and Death rather than to Lily & James and Voldemort, the “born as the 7th month dies” certainly does refer to Harry’s birth and Lily had a hand in that. So she’s mentioned in the prophesy and would be able to hear it under either interpretation
In canon, the assignment of eligible hearers to prophecies is done by Minesty workers. Specifically, the judgment that “the one with the power to vanquish the Dark Lord” refers to Harry, and thus that Harry should have access to the prophecy, was made some time after the recording of the prophecy, by a human. On the assumption that things work the same in the rational-verse, the fact that Lily and James could hear the prophecy isn’t evidence of anything other than the interpretation of the Minestry worker who handled the case.
My largest problem with the Dark Lord == Death theory is that it doesn’t really square with Quirrelmort being another super-rationalist and Eliezer’s First Law of Fanfiction (You can’t make Frodo a Jedi unless you give Sauron the Death Star). Either Quirrelmort is a henchman or personification of Death, which is unlikely considering he is afraid of dying and the dementor try to frighten him in the Humanism arch. Or Quirrelmort is not the Sauron of this story but will help Harry to defeat the main bad guy Death. This could be a really cool ending, but I doubt that it would fit in the remaining arch.
I don’t know, I think turning Sauron into death is comparable to giving Sauron the Death Star (i.e. your ‘Quirrelmort is not Sauron’ interpretation).
Read Eliezer’s short story “The Sword of Good”. I half-expect a “The ‘good’ wizard is only playing the role and really isn’t helping make the world be a better place, while the ‘evil’ wizard is actually the righteous one”.
At this point, I think “Quirrel is secretly good, he just acts evil for his own amusement/cynicism” simply isn’t layered enough for that to really be what’s behind the mask. After all, it’s what he shows to Harry.
I’ve read it but didn’t consider the possibility of a twist like that here as well.
“Three shall be Peverell’s sons and three their devices by which Death shall be defeated.”
When I first saw this line, I didn’t think it was very important, but could it mean that Harry is actually going to use the three Deathly Hallows to defeat death, i.e. make everyone immortal?
I confess, I hadn’t paid that much attention to the possibility, because the canonical Deathly Hallows don’t seem well-suited for the purpose. But I suppose there could be some effect where when the Elder Wand is used to cast the Patronus 2.0, you get an Uber Patronus, or maybe it lets you lets you kill a hundred Dementors without depleting your own life force, or something. And I suppose the Resurrection Stone could easily get an upgrade from canon. But how could the Invisibility Cloak be used as part of the process of granting immortality, beyond hiding from Dementors? Could hiding from Dementors become really important at the climax somehow? Doesn’t seem like it, if the Elder Wand + Patronus 2.0 takes care of the Dementors, hmmm...
There is the theory that the Invisibility Cloak’s power to hide one from Death does not only apply to Dementors, but to death in general. So if you put the cloak over someone who is dying, they would stay alive, at least until the Cloak is removed and death can find them again.
It’s just another of those crazy crackpot theories floating around here, but I think it could fill in that gap in your theory.
The legend in canon says exactly that; the Peverell brother who got the Cloak was most successful, and lived a long time because the Cloak allowed him to evade death (until one day he took it off and got screwed).
He took it off and gave it to his son. In canon he meets death intentionally.
I think that there’s a difference between preventing imminent death, and avoiding death. That is, there’s a difference between being in a situation where you “should” die, but you don’t, and not getting in such a situation to begin with.
And in the canon story (which may not be canon; it appears in the canon, but that doesn’t mean it’s canon), the third brother greeted Death “as an old friend”, so apparently he had the same attitude that Dumbledore had: dying after a full life is not a tragedy.
Of course he had that opinion, Rowling was writing themes so deathist that even the me of that time—who had yet to even hear of transhumanism—was thrown by it.
Voldemort is defined as evil partially just because of his fear of and avoidance of death—if you notice, she explicitly built it so that most of his atrocities occurred after and because of the steps he took to avoid death.
I’m surprised Harry didn’t try this for Hermione, then. Maybe he wouldn’t have expected it to work, but it’s still an easy hypothesis to test.
It’s a shame you retracted this, because I wanted to +1 it.
I don’t actually remember why I retracted it. I tried to un-retract it afterwards, but I don’t think that’s possible.
Well, Harry suggested himself that they practiced on the “little deaths” of Dementors first … so you’re probably on to something ;-)
Thing of note:
Harry in chapter 86:
The prophecy can be interpreted in two ways: “Harry fights Voldemort” and “Harry fights Death” (ignoring more exotic ones like “Harry is Dark Lord and Quirrel is the hero”).
At this point, both positions are justified. Yes, some lines look strange if we assume “Harry fights Death” point of view, but some lines look strange if we assume “Harry fights Voldemort” point of view: just look at chapter 76. The passage above suggests this is normal.
I find myself in a doubt about which interpretation is correct, and it looks like this is exactly as Eliezer wanted it.
Oddly, I feel like each line in this prophecy could equally well point to Dark Lord as Voldemort OR Dark Lord as Death.
Although P(Dark Lord as Death) should get a complexity penalty since Voldemort should be the default candidate due to canon.
EDIT: The last sentence is wrong. What I should’ve said is that since Voldemort is the prophecy’s referent in canon, and he is called the Dark Lord in both canon and hpmor, I’m still assigning >50% probability to Quirrellmort being the entity referred to in hpmor’s prophecy.
This is a misuse of jargon.
Since it seems like these two explanations fit this specific piece of evidence (roughly) equally well, and we know that Quirrelmort is the entity referenced by the prophecy in canon, and that Voldemort is called the Dark Lord in both canon and hpmor, then why wouldn’t Dark Lord as Death get a ‘complexity penalty’?
If I’m using it wrong, please explain.
Complexity means it requires additional things to happen even if you had no evidence.
For example, a more complex hypothesis than “Bob is a human” is “Bob is a human who lives at 123 Fake St.”
Voldemort being called the dark lord is evidence, and learning about new evidence does not itself make a hypothesis more or less complex. It’s just evidence.
You’re right. Thanks for the correction!
You seem to be saying “A is more complex than B means ‘if A then B’ ”, which is not true. The commonly used term for this is “strength”. “Bob is human who lives at 123 Fake St.” is strictly stronger than “Bob is human”.
You are talking about prior probability. P(Dark Lord is Death|no specific background information) roughly equals to P(Eliezer changes things from canon), which isn’t very large; so after updating both with a equally favorable piece of evidence “Death is Dark Lord” is still behind “Voldemort is Dark Lord”.
You can assign prior probabilities in various ways, and one of them is giving every hypothesis an appropriate complexity penalty (or you can just judge everything as equally likely, or give everything a simplicity penalty, or penalize every hypothesis according to how many people it affects, or...). Some ways are better than others, but:
1) Why “complexity penalty” should work in fiction, even in a rationalist fiction?
2) Why hypothesis “Voldemort is Dark Lord” is simpler than “Death is Dark Lord” in the sense of program length? One can argue that the former hypothesis points to the specific human from a pool of a 6 billion people (or 100 billion, if you want to consider every human ever lived) while the latter talks about some entity likely to be very basic from the Magic viewpoint.
Hope that clears some of confusion!
Because there will still be an infinite (countable) number of finite hypotheses which could be considered and only a finite amount of probability to divide among them, which necessarily implies that in the limit more complicated hypotheses will have individual probability approaching zero. This will be true in the limit even if you define ‘complexity’ differently than the person who constructed the distribution.
Is “A or B” more “complex” than “A”? It seems to me that it generally takes more bits to say “A or B”, but the prior for “A” should be smaller than for “A or B”. Is there something in the “assign prior according to complexity” heuristic that accounts for that?
Hmm, I suppose you could judge the “complexity” of the plot of a fan fic by how much it deviated from Canon.
It’s not very useful measure.
So, there is Lesath Lestrange, an original character. Which is more likely: “Lesath thinks that Harry is his Lord” or “Lesath is a 3-level (or any specific number instead of “3″) player who wants to decieve Harry, and also he is H&C which is possible because he knows how to fool anti-obliviation wards”?
Your approach will just say “I don’t know what to make of it. We have already departured from the canon and I can’t work here” with a sad look on face.
EDIT: I re-read my comment, and it seems to be arrogant and condescending. I didn’t intend it to be so, and not sure how I should change it, so I figured I should just apologize beforehand. Your approach to assigning priors is reasonable one, it just lacking some vital parts.
I agree that it’s an incomplete measure. As you point out, we would need some measure of the complexity of divergences from Canon, which requires a more general measure.
Another way to put it would be, I don’t think it’s unreasonable in a fanfic to assign all the details prescribed in Canon a complexity of zero.
This seems reasonable indeed.
(if you are interested, the thing you are pointing at is conditional Kolmogorov complexity)
Nice idea, but how does death mark someone as his (its) equal? Surely not just by killing his friends, else a substantial fraction would be “the equal of death”, which doesn’t seem right.
Hmm. How about:
The destroyer of the world would be Death’s equal. Being killer of Death itself wouldn’t be too shabby either.
I don’t have trouble believing that Harry is Death’s equal, but this doesn’t explain how he was marked by Death as his equal. The Killing Curse bouncing off for whatever reason might be the best explanation. The scar is Death’s mark, not Voldemort’s. That seems a bit...forced, but it does explain why Quirrellmort hasn’t done anything besides kill Rita Skeeter and free Bellatrix Black only to never speak of her again. Death has struck many times, and has been the focus of Harry’s rage and obsession, Voldemort has more than once faded into the background and seemed ambiguously an ally. Another reason to believe that the enemy is Death and not Voldemort is that Voldemort was defeated, as far as we know—he’s not the Lord of anything anymore—while Death most certainly still reigns.
But to look at counterarguments—what if the mark we’re talking about is not the scar at all? If the Dark Lord really is Voldemort, it’s a bit silly to think that Voldemort would acknowledge a baby as his equal. Once Harry came to Hogwarts, Quirrell certainly recognized his rationality and intelligence, and marked him, if only psychologically, as his intellectual equal. “We’re not like the rest of them, you and I...”
I’m still leaning toward the interpretation of Death as the Dark Lord, if only because I have no idea what Voldemort can pull in the next seven to ten chapters that would make him definitively the most important enemy presence in the story.
...are you seriously that sure that Quirrellmort isn’t Mr. Hat & Cloak & thus didn’t Obliviate-blast Hermione & didn’t set her up for murder & didn’t have Draco nearly killed (not to mention that debacle with the Armies), and that he didn’t have anything to do with the Troll (despite canon) & Hermione’s body disappearing (though there are serious suspicions that Harry dealt with that himself), and that the deal with the Dementor eating Harry wasn’t intentional, and that perpetuating the conflict with the bullies via the 100 House Points was accidental, and other things that aren’t outright against the protagonists (like revealing Snape to the bullies), and honestly probably more things I’m forgetting—you’re seriously that sure that he wasn’t behind any of those things that you don’t even mention them as possibilities for what he could have done?
Actually, thank you for this post. Forcing myself to think up and list all of the ways that I believe he’s acted, contrasted against what we know he’s done and given that we know via Eliezer that Dhveeryy vf Ibyqrzbeg, has eliminated some of my doubt that he was involved. It makes no sense for him to be so important and yet do so little.
The Patronus?
Voldemort’s name means “full of death”. (Maybe “thief of death”.) Perhaps Voldemort made himself a personification of Death in order to personally avoid it, seeking for himself alone what the Peverells sought for all?
Sure? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lord_Voldemort :
http://harrypotter.wikia.com/wiki/Tom_Riddle :
I’ve always assumed it meant “flight from death”
It would be slightly interesting to read a fic in which Naming was a mechanism of magic, and Voldemort chose that specific name for very good reasons. Reasons which explained why people feared the name. Maybe he stole the Grim Reaper’s power for his very own, somehow becoming Master of Death or Flight from Death or something similar, something involving an actual title with power invested into it. Neat thoughts in this area, easy for the picking. French is kind of a silly language for it, of course.
Killing intention?
No, that’s just the general impression the word gives me. Which seems to be how Rowling chose all the names.
It’s a canon name, so let’s not overthink it …
Rowling certainly didn’t.
Canon Tom Riddle didn’t either. There are only so much words you can get from letters “TOM MARVOLO RIDDLE”, after all.
“Death” isn’t the name of any aspect, surely you mean “Thief of Time”? :p /me imagines Volvermort in a red gear-emblazoned Vriska outfit
Google Translate gets me “flight of death” or “wants death”. “Flight of death” might refer to AK. More interestingly, “wants death” would make no sense in reference to himself wanting death, but it would make sense in reference to Voldemort wanting the deaths of others. There’s some possible support for your interpretation there.
A piece of evidence in favour of this idea is that Harry, in spite of Dumbledore’s warnings, has tried to interpret the prophecy and arrived at almost exactly the canon interpretation on his first try. With dramatic convention regarding the interpretation of prophecies demanding that Harry’s interpretation is completely wrong, this lends credibility to the Dark Lord Death hypothesis.
I don’t think there’s really reason to think this new prophecy must be evidence of any hypothesis made for the Trelawney prophecy(s). It’s tempting to look at all the threes and see that that makes nice things happen to the parts of your brain that are concerned with pattern recognition, but there’s no reason they have to even be referring to the same things at all. And depending on how you look at it, the simpler explanation is that they are just two different prophecies about two different things.
The time pressure explanation for prophecies suggests that it’s rare for prophecies to be about the same events. By all rights we should be focusing on the fact that there seem to have been a series of prophecies and quasi-prophetic stresses all focused on one person. This is particularly true if ‘He is coming’ and ‘He is here’ refers to Harry (or more specifically the development of his mind or spirit), but even if it isn’t, it seems Harry is a lightning rod for prophecies. That in itself might be more significant than the prophecies themselves.
Would this imply that Harry is descended from all three Peverell brothers?
Given that the brothers lived 800 years ago and the magical world is quite small that’s very probable.
And then he uses a Time-Turner to have three total copies of himself to do the ritual?
Not really, no. Why would it? In fact, I’m pretty sure only the third brother had any children.
Voldemort and Potter are descended from two different brothers. I’m unsure if the third had any canon children or not, but I’m now imagining Dumbledore being descended from him and the three main characters going on a Death-killing mission.
The third was the only one to have a directly referenced child, he passed on his cloak to it.
I strongly agree, but I’m still left wondering how to interpret the rest of the prophesy:
Edit: The prophesy still seems to be a good fit for Quirrelmort for this second half, but Death for the first half. I’m left wondering if there is some important relationship between Death and Quirrelmort that may resolve this.
We know that Quirrelmort is afraid of death (as is Harry’s dark side), and that Harry is entirely sympathetic to that view. Voldemort/Riddle/Monroe seem to have an aging effect on Quirrel’s body. Could it be that Voldemort/Riddle/Monroe have engaged in some sort of arrangement with Death to secure their own immortality? This would make the Quirrelmort character both ally and enemy of Death, and complicate the interpretation of the prophesy as well as Harry’s course of action.
How can Death leave a piece of Harry undestroyed? And it ‘must’ do so. This seems to make more sense the spirit be a comparable thing. (On a silly note, I know exactly 1 fic in which attention was paid to another part of Trelawney’s prophecy, equally vague in wording, but it was set in Rowling-verse.)
On the other hand—again paying close attention to the wording of Eliezer’s modification—it doesn’t seem to me that Death, in HPMOR, can reasonably be described as a “spirit”.
Nice connection