Well the fact that race is correlated with things like IQ is pretty well established empirically, and there is no obvious a priori reason to prefer environmental to genetic explanations.
Not a priori, but there has been at least one study performed on black children adopted by white families, this one, which comes to the conclusion that environment plays a key role. In all honesty, I haven’t even read the study, because I can’t find the full text online, but if more studies like it are performed and come to similar conclusions, then that could be taken as evidence of a largely environmental explanation.
Yes, and I have had numerous twin studies cited at me that purport to show that genetics plays a key role. I can’t vouch for the quality of either but it is clear that the research is likely to remain inconclusive for quite so time.
Really? I’ve seen twin studies that purport a genetic explanation for IQ differences between individuals, but never between racial groups. If you’ve saved a link to a study of the latter type, I’d be really interested to read it.
Well, Down’s Syndrome, for example, clearly affects IQ. There’s a big genetic IQ difference that is only really relevant to individuals. There aren’t Down’s-magnitude intelligence variations between races.
In general, there is wide variation in intelligence among people within any particular ethnic group. Showing these to be genetic doesn’t seem to be too hard either, since you can find individuals of the same ethnic group having been raised in similar environments. On the other hand, the difference in average IQ between races is quite small, compared to the individual within-race differences. To show how much of this was genetic would require controlling for environment, which one can even now expect to be notably different between races.
To put it simply, it’s easy to demonstrate genetic influence, when the effects are of a magnitude such that one can just rule out environment as being the critical factor. Which is not the case for racial differences.
Obviously, you can expect there to exist on average a non-zero genetic component between races, since their genetic material has had time to drift apart. But that’s neither here nor there when you want to know how much.
The point is that even if the heritable component of (say) intelligence among white people formed a bell curve, and the heritable component of intelligence among black people formed a bell curve, a priori you’d expect the two curves to be pretty much the same.
Ok, I’m confused. Under what scenario is it at all plausible for individual IQ differences but not racial IQ differences to be genetic?
Circumstances which look arbitrarily contrived and absurd upon examination but should be acknowledged as at least technically possible. ie. The distributions of IQ within each race are miraculously identical because contrary to expectations the universe really is Fair regarding this one complex trait (but not others).
Or one where the differences are small, or trivial. I don’t think this is “miraculous” or “implausible”. Before the invention of agriculture, about seven to twelve thousand years ago, I’m not sure what pressures there could have been on Europeans to develop higher intelligence than Africans, so in contrast to physical differences, many of which have well-established links to specific climates, intellectual genetic differences would probably be attributable to genetic drift and >~10,000 years of natural selection.
To be clear, my position isn’t that I have good evidence for this, merely that I don’t know and I don’t assign this scenario as low a prior probability as you seem to.
I know of no situation where the race of an individual is the only factor, or the most significant factor in making a decision. Feel free to counterargue.
And I was presenting the argument that it doesn’t matter. There is no good reason to base political, social or legal policy on it It’s always overwhelmed by other factors.
In the grandparent you said that the race of an individual is rarely the only factor. On the other hand, in aggregate it’s possible for the other factors to wash out and we are left with race as the main factor.
Are you arguing for or against public policy based on race?
I’m not sure whether we should or not. However, given that we currently have race-based policies and this is likely to continue for quite some time, they might as well be based on accurate beliefs about race.
IOW, you’re assuming that changing the US’s race-based policies so that they be based on accurate beliefs would be less hard than letting go of them altogether?
Let’s just be clear on where the status quo is. Eugine_Nier has mentioned disparate impact analysis several times. In addition to that is the far more important disparate treatment prohibition.
In the US, a worker can get fired even if it is not for cause. If you boss thinks you are a terrible worker, you can be fired even if you could prove your boss is wrong and you actually are a great worker. But you boss would be liable for wrongful termination if the boss said “I think [blacks / whites / Germans / Russians] are likely to be bad at your job, and you are [black / white / German / Russian], so you’re fired.” Likewise, an employer can’t refuse to hire on that basis.
Proving that is a separate issue, but having no public policy based on race implies repeal of both disparate impact prohibitions and disparate treatment prohibitions (and lots of other stuff, but it’s complicated).
In practice firing a black worker even if he is a terrible worker leaves employers open to wrongful termination suits. Whereas it’s harder to prove that with not hiring a black worker, so frequently the safest route for employers (especially small employers) is to find excuses to avoid hiring black workers rather then risk getting stuck with a bad employee that you can’t fire.
In practice, complying with laws has costs, some of which fall on innocent and semi-innocent third parties. As a lawyer, this is not news to me. The question is whether the benefits of implementing those social policies outweighs the costs. Clarence Thomas, a black Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States thinks the answer is no.
But that is a very different question from asking, as a matter of first principles, whether certain kinds of discrimination are allowed even if the facts don’t support the discrimination. In the United States, most discrimination of this kind is allowed, and restrictions on the factors employers and others may consider are fairly narrow (race, gender, religion, national origin—not ok. youth, poverty, moral character, basically anything else—ok).
Accurate beliefs about what? If a group (however defined) has been subject to negative discrimination, however arbitrary,
then there is an argument for treating them to a period of positive discrimination to compensate. That has nothing
to do with how jusitfied the original negative discrimination was.
But “black people in 1960” (for example) isn’t the same group as “black people today”, as many of the former are dead now and many of the latter hadn’t been born in 1960, and it’s not obvious to me that it makes sense to treat people according on who their grandparents were.
It is morally right to do so. But society is deeply conflicted about doing so (for reasons good and bad), so I’m not sure that “typical” is an accurate description of how often it happens.
Regardless of the frequency of compensation, you really should address head on why you think society should do so. The fact that society occasionally does provide such compensation is barely the beginning of the discuss of whether it should and says almost nothing about how much compensation should be provided, or who should pay.
I am not arguing that Affirmative Action/Positice Discrimination is necessarily right. Just that it doesn’t necessarily have anything at all to do with any facts about DNA.
If actually significant differences in competence have a genetic component, then public policy should reflect that difference. Particularly if the differences are easy / cheap to identify anyway. (I don’t think this is true about race / ethnicity, but that’s a different issue).
If history and practice led to blacks being treated as if the mean IQ was 20 points lower, and the actual difference is 5 points, then the proper public policy is to act as if the difference is 5 points, not zero points to remedy the history and practice.
I suspect that g is not interestingly different between race / ethnicity, and that the IQ test, which seeks to measure g, is culturally biased. But if there is a difference in g that cannot be attributed to environment, then we should consider it in making policy.
In the real world, I think all the important observed difference is culturally driven, so this nod towards facts doesn’t change my policy preferences. I think the facts are in my favor. I just think that we should be explicit about how policy should change if the facts turn out to be different.
If history and practice led to blacks being treated as if the mean IQ was 20 points lower, and the actual difference is 5 points, then the proper public policy is to act as if the difference is 5 points, not zero points to remedy the history and practice.
Why isn’t the proper public policy to treat people as individuals?
You didn’t answer my question about treating other things as equal. If genetics based discrimination leads to $X million lost in strikes and rioting, shoulnd’t that be taken into account?
Why isn’t the proper public policy to treat people as individuals?
Staying out of the racial-politics discussion, but my answer to this question generally is that it’s expensive.
For example, we don’t actually evaluate each individual’s level of maturity before judging, for that individual, whether they’re permitted to purchase alcohol, sign contracts, vote in elections, drive cars, etc.… instead we establish age-based cutoffs and allow the occassional outlier. We understand perfectly well that these cutoffs are arbitrary and don’t actually reflect anything about the affected individuals; at best they reflect community averages but often not even that, but we do it anyway because we want to establish some threshold and evaluating individuals costs too much.
But, sure, bring the costs down far enough (or treat costs as distinct from propriety) and the proper public policy is to separately evaluate individuals.
For example, we don’t actually evaluate each individual’s level of maturity before judging, for that individual, whether they’re permitted to purchase alcohol, sign contracts, vote in elections, drive cars, etc...
On the other hand, job interviewers judge by individual quaifications, not group membership..
Why isn’t the proper public policy to treat people as individuals?
Let’s compare two different types of employment discrimination law (in the US). For simplicity, let’s ignore the burden of proof.
Racial Discrimination: It is illegal to consider an employee’s (or potential employee’s) race when making an employment decision. If a person is fired, but would not have been fired if the person were a different race, the employer has committed wrongful termination. (Substitute “hire,” “promote,” or basically any other employment decision—the rule is unchanged).
Disability Discrimination: First, the disabled employee must be able to perform the job, with or without accommodations. Then, the employer must make reasonable (but not unreasonable) accommodations.
I think it is reasonably clear that disability discrimination law is more individualized. If there really were differences based on race / ethnicity, then I think racial discrimination law ought to look more like disability discrimination law. But I think there aren’t such differences, so I think the law as written is basically right.
If genetics based discrimination leads to $X million lost in strikes and rioting, shoulnd’t that be taken into account?
Seems like this is a question of baseline. Who said we should respect rioting? Or rioting is likely to result from treating people differently based on their actual genetic differences.
Just to be clear, I don’t practice employment law. I practice a very narrow kind of child disability law. Reading this post does not make me your lawyer.
It could mean you don’t translate scientific findings about groups directly into policy without considering ethical and practical implications. It could mean that treating people as individuals should be the default. It could mean there is nonetheless a case for treating people as groups where they were discriminated against as groups in the past.
And why do I need to be told “that there exist genetic differences between races that give rise to behavioral difference”. I have said nothing about affirmative action/positive discrimination one way or the other. You raised that issue. But you didn’t say how they two relate.
And why do I need to be told “that there exist genetic differences between races that give rise to behavioral difference”. I have said nothing about affirmative action/positive discrimination one way or the other. You raised that issue. But you didn’t say how they two relate.
I’m not sure whether the cause is genetic or cultural but there are most definitely behavioral differences between the races. Furthermore, the fact that it’s politically impossible to talk about this is causing a lot of problems. Consider the state of US cities with large black populations as discussed in this blog post by Walter Mead. The behavior in question is probably purely cultural since historic “white ethnic” political machines lead to the same problems, on the other hand the fact that this political machine is black means most people would rather pretend the problem doesn’t exist than talk about it and risk getting called “racist”.
For another example, consider the campaign to force Rhodesia to accept majority rule. Given the subsequent history of Zimbabwe this campaign almost certainly resulted in a worse situation for everyone involved.
First, off you needed about 5 “in the US”’s above.
Second: you’re part of the problem. If you want to discuss socio-cultural-polical problems in the US, discuss them
as such. Say “we have problems with populations of the urban poor”. We have problems with the urban poor too, and they don’t coincide with race. Given the way you have described the problem above, your initial approach of kicking off discussion of the problem by talking about genetic differences is exactly the wrong one -- it will block off sensible discussion, and it isn’t the real issue anyway.
Furthermore, the fact that it’s politically impossible to talk about this [..] in this blog post by Walter Mead.
Sure seems possible for Mr Mead.
For another example, consider the campaign to force Rhodesia to accept majority rule. Given the subsequent history of Zimbabwe this campaign almost certainly resulted in a worse situation for everyone involved.
Your point being what? That democracy is always bad? That Africans can’t ever govern themselves? That liberals are always wrong? You can’t come to any of those sweeping conclusions from the one example of
Zimbabwe. It’s an exception.
Try as it might, my system II has yet to see such an argument with non-negligible merit.
Well the fact that race is correlated with things like IQ is pretty well established empirically, and there is no obvious a priori reason to prefer environmental to genetic explanations.
Not a priori, but there has been at least one study performed on black children adopted by white families, this one, which comes to the conclusion that environment plays a key role. In all honesty, I haven’t even read the study, because I can’t find the full text online, but if more studies like it are performed and come to similar conclusions, then that could be taken as evidence of a largely environmental explanation.
Here it is (pdf link).
Many thanks!
Yes, and I have had numerous twin studies cited at me that purport to show that genetics plays a key role. I can’t vouch for the quality of either but it is clear that the research is likely to remain inconclusive for quite so time.
Really? I’ve seen twin studies that purport a genetic explanation for IQ differences between individuals, but never between racial groups. If you’ve saved a link to a study of the latter type, I’d be really interested to read it.
Ok, I’m confused. Under what scenario is it at all plausible for individual IQ differences but not racial IQ differences to be genetic?
Well, Down’s Syndrome, for example, clearly affects IQ. There’s a big genetic IQ difference that is only really relevant to individuals. There aren’t Down’s-magnitude intelligence variations between races.
In general, there is wide variation in intelligence among people within any particular ethnic group. Showing these to be genetic doesn’t seem to be too hard either, since you can find individuals of the same ethnic group having been raised in similar environments. On the other hand, the difference in average IQ between races is quite small, compared to the individual within-race differences. To show how much of this was genetic would require controlling for environment, which one can even now expect to be notably different between races.
To put it simply, it’s easy to demonstrate genetic influence, when the effects are of a magnitude such that one can just rule out environment as being the critical factor. Which is not the case for racial differences.
Obviously, you can expect there to exist on average a non-zero genetic component between races, since their genetic material has had time to drift apart. But that’s neither here nor there when you want to know how much.
I keep hearing people say that and always wanted to ask which statistics are being compared.
Not about intelligence specifically, but I believe this was the first (well-known) paper making the claim: http://www.philbio.org/wp-content/uploads/2010/11/Lewontin-The-Apportionment-of-Human-Diversity.pdf
The point is that even if the heritable component of (say) intelligence among white people formed a bell curve, and the heritable component of intelligence among black people formed a bell curve, a priori you’d expect the two curves to be pretty much the same.
(Lewontin’s other conclusion, that “race” is “biologically meaningless”, is separate and doesn’t work because what small racial differences there are are statistically clustered: http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/bies.10315/abstract;jsessionid=831B49767DB713DADCD9A1199D7ADC49.d02t02)
Circumstances which look arbitrarily contrived and absurd upon examination but should be acknowledged as at least technically possible. ie. The distributions of IQ within each race are miraculously identical because contrary to expectations the universe really is Fair regarding this one complex trait (but not others).
Or one where the differences are small, or trivial. I don’t think this is “miraculous” or “implausible”. Before the invention of agriculture, about seven to twelve thousand years ago, I’m not sure what pressures there could have been on Europeans to develop higher intelligence than Africans, so in contrast to physical differences, many of which have well-established links to specific climates, intellectual genetic differences would probably be attributable to genetic drift and >~10,000 years of natural selection. To be clear, my position isn’t that I have good evidence for this, merely that I don’t know and I don’t assign this scenario as low a prior probability as you seem to.
I know of no situation where the race of an individual is the only factor, or the most significant factor in making a decision. Feel free to counterargue.
Huh? What does that have to do with my argument?
In case it wasn’t clear I was presenting an argument that there exist genetic differences between races that give rise to behavioral differences.
And I was presenting the argument that it doesn’t matter. There is no good reason to base political, social or legal policy on it It’s always overwhelmed by other factors.
And yet we do, the “anti-racists” insist on it.
In the grandparent you said that the race of an individual is rarely the only factor. On the other hand, in aggregate it’s possible for the other factors to wash out and we are left with race as the main factor.
Run that one past me again. Are you arguing for or against public policy based on race?
I’m not sure whether we should or not. However, given that we currently have race-based policies and this is likely to continue for quite some time, they might as well be based on accurate beliefs about race.
IOW, you’re assuming that changing the US’s race-based policies so that they be based on accurate beliefs would be less hard than letting go of them altogether?
Let’s just be clear on where the status quo is. Eugine_Nier has mentioned disparate impact analysis several times. In addition to that is the far more important disparate treatment prohibition.
In the US, a worker can get fired even if it is not for cause. If you boss thinks you are a terrible worker, you can be fired even if you could prove your boss is wrong and you actually are a great worker. But you boss would be liable for wrongful termination if the boss said “I think [blacks / whites / Germans / Russians] are likely to be bad at your job, and you are [black / white / German / Russian], so you’re fired.” Likewise, an employer can’t refuse to hire on that basis.
Proving that is a separate issue, but having no public policy based on race implies repeal of both disparate impact prohibitions and disparate treatment prohibitions (and lots of other stuff, but it’s complicated).
In practice firing a black worker even if he is a terrible worker leaves employers open to wrongful termination suits. Whereas it’s harder to prove that with not hiring a black worker, so frequently the safest route for employers (especially small employers) is to find excuses to avoid hiring black workers rather then risk getting stuck with a bad employee that you can’t fire.
In practice, complying with laws has costs, some of which fall on innocent and semi-innocent third parties. As a lawyer, this is not news to me. The question is whether the benefits of implementing those social policies outweighs the costs. Clarence Thomas, a black Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States thinks the answer is no.
But that is a very different question from asking, as a matter of first principles, whether certain kinds of discrimination are allowed even if the facts don’t support the discrimination. In the United States, most discrimination of this kind is allowed, and restrictions on the factors employers and others may consider are fairly narrow (race, gender, religion, national origin—not ok. youth, poverty, moral character, basically anything else—ok).
Accurate beliefs about what? If a group (however defined) has been subject to negative discrimination, however arbitrary, then there is an argument for treating them to a period of positive discrimination to compensate. That has nothing to do with how jusitfied the original negative discrimination was.
But “black people in 1960” (for example) isn’t the same group as “black people today”, as many of the former are dead now and many of the latter hadn’t been born in 1960, and it’s not obvious to me that it makes sense to treat people according on who their grandparents were.
If someone was wrongfully executed, killed in a medical bliunder, etc, it is typically their families who are compensated.
It is morally right to do so. But society is deeply conflicted about doing so (for reasons good and bad), so I’m not sure that “typical” is an accurate description of how often it happens.
Regardless of the frequency of compensation, you really should address head on why you think society should do so. The fact that society occasionally does provide such compensation is barely the beginning of the discuss of whether it should and says almost nothing about how much compensation should be provided, or who should pay.
To put it slightly differently, Eugine_Nier is not wrong when he asserts anti-discrimination laws impose significant cost on society as a whole. I think the benefits are worth the costs, but that is a fact-bound inquiry, not a statement of first principles.
I am not arguing that Affirmative Action/Positice Discrimination is necessarily right. Just that it doesn’t necessarily have anything at all to do with any facts about DNA.
If actually significant differences in competence have a genetic component, then public policy should reflect that difference. Particularly if the differences are easy / cheap to identify anyway. (I don’t think this is true about race / ethnicity, but that’s a different issue).
Otherwise, our preferred policies won’t work in the Least Convenient Possible World.
Are you assuming all other things are equal? They never are.
If history and practice led to blacks being treated as if the mean IQ was 20 points lower, and the actual difference is 5 points, then the proper public policy is to act as if the difference is 5 points, not zero points to remedy the history and practice.
I suspect that g is not interestingly different between race / ethnicity, and that the IQ test, which seeks to measure g, is culturally biased. But if there is a difference in g that cannot be attributed to environment, then we should consider it in making policy.
In the real world, I think all the important observed difference is culturally driven, so this nod towards facts doesn’t change my policy preferences. I think the facts are in my favor. I just think that we should be explicit about how policy should change if the facts turn out to be different.
Why isn’t the proper public policy to treat people as individuals?
You didn’t answer my question about treating other things as equal. If genetics based discrimination leads to $X million lost in strikes and rioting, shoulnd’t that be taken into account?
*
Staying out of the racial-politics discussion, but my answer to this question generally is that it’s expensive.
For example, we don’t actually evaluate each individual’s level of maturity before judging, for that individual, whether they’re permitted to purchase alcohol, sign contracts, vote in elections, drive cars, etc.… instead we establish age-based cutoffs and allow the occassional outlier. We understand perfectly well that these cutoffs are arbitrary and don’t actually reflect anything about the affected individuals; at best they reflect community averages but often not even that, but we do it anyway because we want to establish some threshold and evaluating individuals costs too much.
But, sure, bring the costs down far enough (or treat costs as distinct from propriety) and the proper public policy is to separately evaluate individuals.
On the other hand, job interviewers judge by individual quaifications, not group membership..
Or at least, they can do so with minimal investment. Agreed.
I’m not sure what the relationship between job interviews and public policy is, though.
Let’s compare two different types of employment discrimination law (in the US). For simplicity, let’s ignore the burden of proof.
Racial Discrimination: It is illegal to consider an employee’s (or potential employee’s) race when making an employment decision. If a person is fired, but would not have been fired if the person were a different race, the employer has committed wrongful termination. (Substitute “hire,” “promote,” or basically any other employment decision—the rule is unchanged).
Disability Discrimination: First, the disabled employee must be able to perform the job, with or without accommodations. Then, the employer must make reasonable (but not unreasonable) accommodations.
I think it is reasonably clear that disability discrimination law is more individualized. If there really were differences based on race / ethnicity, then I think racial discrimination law ought to look more like disability discrimination law. But I think there aren’t such differences, so I think the law as written is basically right.
Seems like this is a question of baseline. Who said we should respect rioting? Or rioting is likely to result from treating people differently based on their actual genetic differences.
Just to be clear, I don’t practice employment law. I practice a very narrow kind of child disability law. Reading this post does not make me your lawyer.
What does this mean in practice? Does this mean employers should be free to hire any individual they choose?
It could mean you don’t translate scientific findings about groups directly into policy without considering ethical and practical implications. It could mean that treating people as individuals should be the default. It could mean there is nonetheless a case for treating people as groups where they were discriminated against as groups in the past.
And are they?
And why do I need to be told “that there exist genetic differences between races that give rise to behavioral difference”. I have said nothing about affirmative action/positive discrimination one way or the other. You raised that issue. But you didn’t say how they two relate.
I’m not sure whether the cause is genetic or cultural but there are most definitely behavioral differences between the races. Furthermore, the fact that it’s politically impossible to talk about this is causing a lot of problems. Consider the state of US cities with large black populations as discussed in this blog post by Walter Mead. The behavior in question is probably purely cultural since historic “white ethnic” political machines lead to the same problems, on the other hand the fact that this political machine is black means most people would rather pretend the problem doesn’t exist than talk about it and risk getting called “racist”.
For another example, consider the campaign to force Rhodesia to accept majority rule. Given the subsequent history of Zimbabwe this campaign almost certainly resulted in a worse situation for everyone involved.
First, off you needed about 5 “in the US”’s above.
Second: you’re part of the problem. If you want to discuss socio-cultural-polical problems in the US, discuss them as such. Say “we have problems with populations of the urban poor”. We have problems with the urban poor too, and they don’t coincide with race. Given the way you have described the problem above, your initial approach of kicking off discussion of the problem by talking about genetic differences is exactly the wrong one -- it will block off sensible discussion, and it isn’t the real issue anyway.
Sure seems possible for Mr Mead.
Your point being what? That democracy is always bad? That Africans can’t ever govern themselves? That liberals are always wrong? You can’t come to any of those sweeping conclusions from the one example of Zimbabwe. It’s an exception.
Mead is just some random blogger. Witness the reaction that occurred when Philadelphia magazine published an article on a similar topic.
No, that’s the problem.
By the way affirmative action is by no means the only race-based policy, just the one simplest to describe.
In what what are they not?