The original 1 seems pretty clearly false here if X >> 1000 for basically any value of Y.
Woops, I meant 1,000*X
And Y/2 pain, probably? (Or the conclusion doesn’t follow.)
Ahhh, yep, thanks
Oops, right!
The original 1 seems pretty clearly false here if X >> 1000 for basically any value of Y.
Woops, I meant 1,000*X
And Y/2 pain, probably? (Or the conclusion doesn’t follow.)
Ahhh, yep, thanks
Oops, right!