Hmm… I think Eliezer might have overstated his case a little (for the lay audience). If you take a utility function to be normative with respect to your actions, it’s not merely descriptive of your preferences, for some meanings of “preference”—not including, I would think, the definition Eliezer would use.
Using more ordinary language, a Kantian might have preferences about the outcomes of his actions, but doesn’t think such preferences are the primary concern in what one ought to do.
Using more ordinary language, a Kantian might have preferences about the outcomes of his actions, but doesn’t think such preferences are the primary concern in what one ought to do.
Oh. Well, that’s not a distinction that seems terribly important to me. I’m happy to talk about “preferences” as being (necessarily) causally related to one’s actions.
In that case, how could you be said to have preferences about outcomes without being a consequentialist?
Can we not have preferences without a utility function?
Hmm… I think Eliezer might have overstated his case a little (for the lay audience). If you take a utility function to be normative with respect to your actions, it’s not merely descriptive of your preferences, for some meanings of “preference”—not including, I would think, the definition Eliezer would use.
Using more ordinary language, a Kantian might have preferences about the outcomes of his actions, but doesn’t think such preferences are the primary concern in what one ought to do.
Oh. Well, that’s not a distinction that seems terribly important to me. I’m happy to talk about “preferences” as being (necessarily) causally related to one’s actions.