But isn’t the whole debate about moral realism vs. anti-realism is whether “Don’t murder” is universally compelling to humans. Noticing that pebblesorters aren’t compelled by our values doesn’t explain whether humans should necessarily find “don’t murder” compelling.
I identify as a moral realist, but I don’t believe all moral facts are universally compelling to humans, at least not if “universally compelling” is meant descriptively rather than normatively. I don’t take moral realism to be a psychological thesis about what particular types of intelligences actually find compelling; I take it to be the claim that there are moral obligations and that certain types of agents should adhere to them (all other things being equal), irrespective of their particular desire sets and whether or not they feel any psychological pressure to adhere to these obligations. This is a normative claim, not a descriptive one.
What? Moral realism (in the philosophy literature) is about whether moral statements have truth values, that’s it.
When I said universally compelling, I meant universally. To all agents, not just humans. Or any large class. For any true statement, you can probably expect to find a surprisingly large number of agents who just don’t care about it.
Whether “don’t murder” (or rather, “murder is bad” since commands don’t have truth values, and are even less likely to be generally compelling) is compelling to all humans is a question for psychology. As it happens, given the existence of serial killers and sociopaths, probably the answer is no, it isn’t. Though I would hope it to be compelling to most.
I have shown you two true but non-universally-compelling arguments. Surely the difference must be clear now.
What? Moral realism (in the philosophy literature) is about whether moral statements have truth values, that’s it.
This is incorrect, in my experience. Although “moral realism” is a notoriously slippery phrase and gets used in many subtly different ways, I think most philosophers engaged in the moral realism vs. anti-realism debate aren’t merely debating whether moral statements have truth values. The position you’re describing is usually labeled “moral cognitivism”.
Anyway, I suspect you mis-spoke here, and intended to say that moral realists claim that (certain) moral statements are true, rather than just that they have truth values (“false” is a truth value, after all). But I don’t think that modification captures the tenor of the debate either. Moral realists are usually defending a whole suite of theses—not just that some moral statements are true, but that they are true objectively and that certain sorts of agents are under some sort of obligation to adhere to them.
I think you guys should taboo “moral realism”. I understand that it’s important to get the terminology right, but IMO debates about nothing but terminology have little value.
Anyway, I suspect you mis-spoke here, and intended to say that moral realists claim that (certain) moral statements are true, rather than just that they have truth values (“false” is a truth value, after all).
Err, right, yes, that’s what I meant. Error theorists do of course also claim that moral statements have truth values.
Moral realists are usually defending a whole suite of theses—not just that some moral statements are true, but that they are true objectively and that certain sorts of agents are under some sort of obligation to adhere to them.
True enough, though I guess I’d prefer to talk about a single well-specified claim than a “usually” cluster in philosopher-space.
If that philosopher believes that statements like “murder is wrong” are true, then they are indeed a realist. Did I say something that looked like I would disagree?
You guys are talking past each other, because you mean something different by ‘compelling’. I think Tim means that X is compelling to all human beings if any human being will accept X under ideal epistemic circumstances. You seem to take ‘X is universally compelling’ to mean that all human beings already do accept X, or would on a first hearing.
Would agree that all human beings would accept all true statements under ideal epistemic circumstances (i.e. having heard all the arguments, seen all the evidence, in the best state of mind)?
I guess I must clarify. When I say ‘compelling’ here I am really talking mainly about motivational compellingness. Saying “if you drink-drive, you could kill someone!” to a human is generally, motivationally compelling as an argument for not drink-driving: because humans don’t like killing people, a human will decide not to drink-drive (one in a rational state of mind, anyway).
This is distinct from accepting statements as true or false! Any rational agent, give or take a few, will presumably believe you about the causal relationship between drink-driving and manslaughter once presented with sufficient evidence. But it is a tiny subset of these who will change their decisions on this basis. A mind that doesn’t care whether it kills people will see this information as an irrelevant curiosity.
But isn’t the whole debate about moral realism vs. anti-realism is whether “Don’t murder” is universally compelling to humans. Noticing that pebblesorters aren’t compelled by our values doesn’t explain whether humans should necessarily find “don’t murder” compelling.
I identify as a moral realist, but I don’t believe all moral facts are universally compelling to humans, at least not if “universally compelling” is meant descriptively rather than normatively. I don’t take moral realism to be a psychological thesis about what particular types of intelligences actually find compelling; I take it to be the claim that there are moral obligations and that certain types of agents should adhere to them (all other things being equal), irrespective of their particular desire sets and whether or not they feel any psychological pressure to adhere to these obligations. This is a normative claim, not a descriptive one.
What? Moral realism (in the philosophy literature) is about whether moral statements have truth values, that’s it.
When I said universally compelling, I meant universally. To all agents, not just humans. Or any large class. For any true statement, you can probably expect to find a surprisingly large number of agents who just don’t care about it.
Whether “don’t murder” (or rather, “murder is bad” since commands don’t have truth values, and are even less likely to be generally compelling) is compelling to all humans is a question for psychology. As it happens, given the existence of serial killers and sociopaths, probably the answer is no, it isn’t. Though I would hope it to be compelling to most.
I have shown you two true but non-universally-compelling arguments. Surely the difference must be clear now.
This is incorrect, in my experience. Although “moral realism” is a notoriously slippery phrase and gets used in many subtly different ways, I think most philosophers engaged in the moral realism vs. anti-realism debate aren’t merely debating whether moral statements have truth values. The position you’re describing is usually labeled “moral cognitivism”.
Anyway, I suspect you mis-spoke here, and intended to say that moral realists claim that (certain) moral statements are true, rather than just that they have truth values (“false” is a truth value, after all). But I don’t think that modification captures the tenor of the debate either. Moral realists are usually defending a whole suite of theses—not just that some moral statements are true, but that they are true objectively and that certain sorts of agents are under some sort of obligation to adhere to them.
I think you guys should taboo “moral realism”. I understand that it’s important to get the terminology right, but IMO debates about nothing but terminology have little value.
Err, right, yes, that’s what I meant. Error theorists do of course also claim that moral statements have truth values.
True enough, though I guess I’d prefer to talk about a single well-specified claim than a “usually” cluster in philosopher-space.
So, a philosopher who says:
is not a moral realist? Because that philosopher does not seem to be a subjectivist, an error theorist, or non-cognitivist.
If that philosopher believes that statements like “murder is wrong” are true, then they are indeed a realist. Did I say something that looked like I would disagree?
You guys are talking past each other, because you mean something different by ‘compelling’. I think Tim means that X is compelling to all human beings if any human being will accept X under ideal epistemic circumstances. You seem to take ‘X is universally compelling’ to mean that all human beings already do accept X, or would on a first hearing.
Would agree that all human beings would accept all true statements under ideal epistemic circumstances (i.e. having heard all the arguments, seen all the evidence, in the best state of mind)?
I guess I must clarify. When I say ‘compelling’ here I am really talking mainly about motivational compellingness. Saying “if you drink-drive, you could kill someone!” to a human is generally, motivationally compelling as an argument for not drink-driving: because humans don’t like killing people, a human will decide not to drink-drive (one in a rational state of mind, anyway).
This is distinct from accepting statements as true or false! Any rational agent, give or take a few, will presumably believe you about the causal relationship between drink-driving and manslaughter once presented with sufficient evidence. But it is a tiny subset of these who will change their decisions on this basis. A mind that doesn’t care whether it kills people will see this information as an irrelevant curiosity.