Progressivism was already utterly dominant in the 1960s. It was utterly dominant in the 1900s. What changed was how important it thought “civil rights” where. This did not happen due to popular sentiment but changing moral fashion among intellectual elites in general. Not only did popular sentiment not change much because of activism, neither did intellectual moral fashion, it was changed as a side effect of where Ivy League opinions where a few decades before.
Now sure those opinions might have shifted because of activism, but that was a different generation of activists than the ones that where picked by the media and education industry as symbols for their new prescription for society.
Isn’t it just easier to say that 1900s-progressivism and 1960s-progressivism are different but related movements?
It is worthwhile to ask how people and ideas moved (or didn’t move) from one to the other—but that nuanced question is impossible unless one can admit there are two movements, not one.
Isn’t it just easier to say that 1900s-progressivism and 1960s-progressivism are different but related movements?
The difference isn’t any greater than between 2010s Anglicanism and 1950s Anglicanism, I don’t often hear this argument related to them. But leaving this aside for now, one movement is quite clearly descended from the other, both in the affiliations of key individuals who connect both down to the chains of cited literature.
First, I’m not familiar enough with Anglicanism to agree or disagree with your assertion. For example, I don’t think the statement is accurate about Reform Judaism.
Second, even if current Anglicans take the inside view to assert that they are the same as past Anglican, that doesn’t require that we who are taking the outside view must agree with that assessment.
So, according to Moldbug, political changes over time aren’t due to different movements waxing and waning in power and support, but rather due to one grand movement changing its mind? He seems to be a shockingly vanilla conspiracy theorist, given what I’ve heard of him. I’m surprised that LWers put up with him...
You might try reading Yvain’s summary of Reaction. I can’t guarantee it’s the single most accurate description of the philosophy in existence, but it’s probably the clearest.
The article seems to amount to “Conspiracy theories aren’t always wrong”. I don’t see the connection.
No.
Here I consider in some detail a failure mode that classical rationality often recognizes. Unfortunately nearly all heuristics normally used to detect it seem remarkably vulnerable to misfiring or being exploited by others. I advocate an approach where we try our best to account for the key bias, seeing agency where there is none, while trying to minimize the risk of being tricked into dismissing claims because of boo lights.
To summarize.
When do conspiracy theories seem more likely than they are?
The phenomena is unpredictable or can’t be modelled very well
Models used by others are hard to understand or are very counter-intuitive
Thinking about the subject significantly strains cognitive resources
The theory explains why bad things happen or why something went wrong
The theory requires coordination
When you see these features you probably find the theory more plausible than it is.
Progressivism was already utterly dominant in the 1960s. It was utterly dominant in the 1900s. What changed was how important it thought “civil rights” where. This did not happen due to popular sentiment but changing moral fashion among intellectual elites in general. Not only did popular sentiment not change much because of activism, neither did intellectual moral fashion, it was changed as a side effect of where Ivy League opinions where a few decades before.
Now sure those opinions might have shifted because of activism, but that was a different generation of activists than the ones that where picked by the media and education industry as symbols for their new prescription for society.
Isn’t it just easier to say that 1900s-progressivism and 1960s-progressivism are different but related movements?
It is worthwhile to ask how people and ideas moved (or didn’t move) from one to the other—but that nuanced question is impossible unless one can admit there are two movements, not one.
The difference isn’t any greater than between 2010s Anglicanism and 1950s Anglicanism, I don’t often hear this argument related to them. But leaving this aside for now, one movement is quite clearly descended from the other, both in the affiliations of key individuals who connect both down to the chains of cited literature.
First, I’m not familiar enough with Anglicanism to agree or disagree with your assertion. For example, I don’t think the statement is accurate about Reform Judaism.
Second, even if current Anglicans take the inside view to assert that they are the same as past Anglican, that doesn’t require that we who are taking the outside view must agree with that assessment.
So, according to Moldbug, political changes over time aren’t due to different movements waxing and waning in power and support, but rather due to one grand movement changing its mind? He seems to be a shockingly vanilla conspiracy theorist, given what I’ve heard of him. I’m surprised that LWers put up with him...
No. Also you may need to think a bit more about what exactly you mean when you say conspiracy theory.
You might need to expand on the “no”.
You might try reading Yvain’s summary of Reaction. I can’t guarantee it’s the single most accurate description of the philosophy in existence, but it’s probably the clearest.
Did you read my article on conspiracy theories I linked to?
Your “No” seems to amount to “You interpreted Moldbug wrongly”.
The article seems to amount to “Conspiracy theories aren’t always wrong”. I don’t see the connection.
No.
To summarize.