Are you sure? Because tan(pi/4) = 1, and pi/4 is a constant.
He’s probably using “tangent” to mean derivative.
That’s my working assumption, but you never know.
A working assumption which can explain the observed result, is pretty probable. Update accordingly!
Yes, I use the “tangent” in that sense. Feynman could also.
May I point you to the A Human’s Guide to Words sequence?
Are you sure? Because tan(pi/4) = 1, and pi/4 is a constant.
He’s probably using “tangent” to mean derivative.
That’s my working assumption, but you never know.
A working assumption which can explain the observed result, is pretty probable. Update accordingly!
Yes, I use the “tangent” in that sense. Feynman could also.
May I point you to the A Human’s Guide to Words sequence?