Senses do gather accurate data about reality, because they are part of reality. It is our interpretation of that data into models about other parts of reality that may be partly or completely wrong.
Is this a screen which I see before me? I interpret what I see, in the context of my experience so far, as meaning there is a screen before me. So far it has been an extremely reliable predictor of other sensory data I might experience, such as the visual stimulus changing in familiar ways as I do some stuff which I interpret as typing on a keyboard connecting to a computer that connects to it, or tactile stimulus if I do some stuff that I interpret as reaching out to touch it.
The fact that I can predict anything whatsoever about my sensory experiences, even the fact that I appear to have a consistent enough identity to have a history of sensory experiences, suggests that I am part of an extremely lawful universe of some sort. Whether it is completely lawful is unknowable, and possibly not even a well-posed question.
I confronted some research claiming that senses of agents evolved under fitness pressure systematically diverges from reality, but in the abstract they state that the standard consensus between cognitive and perceptual scientists is the other way.
In any way, I think the answer to this question is not trivial, and the idea of using a mathematical model in which there’s a universe with fixed set of laws and evolving agents to explore the possibilities seems appealing to me.
I think I have a more serious problem regarding these formulas. If a and b goes to 1, regardless of c, Pr(p) and Pr(q) goes to 1. So if p is the statement “q is true.” and q is the statement “p is true.” then p and q must be true, which I think is nonsense. But I cannot see where my mistake is. Could you help please?
If a=b=1 then Pr(p & q) / Pr(p) = P(p & q) / Pr(q) = 1 so that Pr(p) = Pr(q) = Pr(p & q). That doesn’t require that Pr(p), Pr(q), or Pr(p & q) goes to 1. It just means that in a Venn diagram, p and q coincide (or in popular parlance, “are a circle”).
I used the expression I derived in the post, Pr(q)=bcac−ab+b. However I didn’t notice that c goes to 0 too, at least for the example I gave in my previous comment. So there seems to be no issue as long as c goes to 0 since it causes the indeterminate form 0⁄0.
Senses do gather accurate data about reality, because they are part of reality. It is our interpretation of that data into models about other parts of reality that may be partly or completely wrong.
Is this a screen which I see before me? I interpret what I see, in the context of my experience so far, as meaning there is a screen before me. So far it has been an extremely reliable predictor of other sensory data I might experience, such as the visual stimulus changing in familiar ways as I do some stuff which I interpret as typing on a keyboard connecting to a computer that connects to it, or tactile stimulus if I do some stuff that I interpret as reaching out to touch it.
The fact that I can predict anything whatsoever about my sensory experiences, even the fact that I appear to have a consistent enough identity to have a history of sensory experiences, suggests that I am part of an extremely lawful universe of some sort. Whether it is completely lawful is unknowable, and possibly not even a well-posed question.
I confronted some research claiming that senses of agents evolved under fitness pressure systematically diverges from reality, but in the abstract they state that the standard consensus between cognitive and perceptual scientists is the other way.
In any way, I think the answer to this question is not trivial, and the idea of using a mathematical model in which there’s a universe with fixed set of laws and evolving agents to explore the possibilities seems appealing to me.
I think I have a more serious problem regarding these formulas. If a and b goes to 1, regardless of c, Pr(p) and Pr(q) goes to 1. So if p is the statement “q is true.” and q is the statement “p is true.” then p and q must be true, which I think is nonsense. But I cannot see where my mistake is. Could you help please?
If a=b=1 then Pr(p & q) / Pr(p) = P(p & q) / Pr(q) = 1 so that Pr(p) = Pr(q) = Pr(p & q). That doesn’t require that Pr(p), Pr(q), or Pr(p & q) goes to 1. It just means that in a Venn diagram, p and q coincide (or in popular parlance, “are a circle”).
How did you get Pr(p) = Pr(q) = 1?
I used the expression I derived in the post, Pr(q)=bcac−ab+b. However I didn’t notice that c goes to 0 too, at least for the example I gave in my previous comment. So there seems to be no issue as long as c goes to 0 since it causes the indeterminate form 0⁄0.