Eh, not especially. IIRC, scores have also had to be renormalized on Stanford-Binet and Weschler tests over the years. That said, I’d bet it has some effect, but I’d be much more willing to bet on less malnutrition, less beating / early head injury, and better public health allowing better development during childhood and adolescence.
That said, I’m very interested in any data that points to other causes behind the Flynn Effect, so if you have any to post don’t hesitate.
It just means that the intelligence gap was smaller, potentially much, much smaller, when humans first started developing a serious edge relative to apes. It’s not evidence for accumulation per se, but it’s evidence against us just being so much smarter from the get go, and renormalizing has it function very much like evidence for accumulation.
Eh, not especially. IIRC, scores have also had to be renormalized on Stanford-Binet and Weschler tests over the years. That said, I’d bet it has some effect, but I’d be much more willing to bet on less malnutrition, less beating / early head injury, and better public health allowing better development during childhood and adolescence.
That said, I’m very interested in any data that points to other causes behind the Flynn Effect, so if you have any to post don’t hesitate.
I’m just trying to make sure I understand—I remember being confused about the Flynn effect and about what Katja asked above.
How does the Flynn effect affect our belief in the hypothesis of accumulation?
It just means that the intelligence gap was smaller, potentially much, much smaller, when humans first started developing a serious edge relative to apes. It’s not evidence for accumulation per se, but it’s evidence against us just being so much smarter from the get go, and renormalizing has it function very much like evidence for accumulation.