If two theories imply different invisibles, they shouldn’t be considered equivalent. That no evidence can tell them apart, and still they are not equal, is explained by them having different priors. But if two theories are logically (agent-provably, rather) equivalent, this is different, as the invisibles they imply and priors measuring them are also the same.
If two theories imply different invisibles, they shouldn’t be considered equivalent. That no evidence can tell them apart, and still they are not equal, is explained by them having different priors. But if two theories are logically (agent-provably, rather) equivalent, this is different, as the invisibles they imply and priors measuring them are also the same.
Can a theory be proved logically equivalent to a theory with more, or fewer, morally valuable agents?