That is, Germans and Austrians (and those influenced by them) wrote the history of music
This is, of course, a fully general counter-argument: any time someone points to a cluster, you can say ‘well those and those influenced by them wrote the history so of course we see a cluster’.
For those who don’t accept this fully general counter-argument, Murray considered precisely this national/linguistic argument about bias and examined sources written in a foreign language—eg. what did the Japanese textbooks have to say about German music? He found that this corrective did change rankings and scores… for literature. pg 486:
Histories and biographical dictionaries of Western literature are much more affected by the language of the author than are sources for Western music art and visual art, and for an obvious reason. To repeat the point made in Chapter 5: A German can listen to a work by Vivaldi as easily as he can listen to one by Bach, and an Englishman can look at a painting by Monet as easily as one by Constable. The same cannot be said of literature, because of the language barrier. German historians of literature give markedly more attention to German authors than others, English historians to English authors, and so on. It is not just a matter of national chauvinism. Spanish historians of literature give more attention to New World literature written in Spanish than do historians of other nationalities.
To quote his longer discussion in chapter 5:
National chauvinism within the West remains a problem. Works purporting to cover all of the Western world are skewed toward the nationality of the author. For example, British art historians tend to give more space to Constable and Turner than Italian art historians do, and French historians of philosophy tend to include French thinkers that hardly anyone else mentions.
An examination of these tendencies reveals that the effect of chauvinistic tendencies is minor to begin with and eliminated if the sources come from a mix of nations. Therefore the inventories for the West (visual arts, music, literature, and philosophy) employ sources that have been balanced among the major European nations (Britain, France, Germany, Italy, and Spain) plus the United States and a scattering of other nations ( Japan, Argentina, Denmark). A number of the compilations are also the product of multinational teams. Examination revealed that the effect of chauvinistic tendencies for most of the inventories were minor to begin with and eliminated by using sources from a mix of nations. The exception was literature. A German can listen to a work byVivaldi as easily as he can listen to one by Bach, and an Englishman can look at a painting by Monet as easily as one by Constable. The same cannot be said of literature, because of the language barrier. German historians of literature give disproportionate attention to German and Austrian authors, English historians to English and American authors, and so on. The selection of significant figures and computation of their index scores were therefore based exclusively on sources not written in the language of the author in question (e.g., Thackeray’s selection as a significant figure and his index score are based exclusively on sources not written in English).
To be clear, my argument wasn’t directed against Murray, but at his sources. I don’t doubt that Murray more or less correctly measured what he was trying to measure (whether or not that measurement has whatever significance he attributes to it, I don’t know; I haven’t read his book).
My real interest is in “debunking” the notion of the “common-practice period”; I would instead prefer to call the period in question the “Germanic period” or something similar. It isn’t really a question of quality: personally, I happen to agree that there is something special about Viennese classicism (i.e. Haydn, Mozart, and Beethoven) but I wouldn’t assign a similar specialness to Pachelbel and Reger while leaving out Gesualdo and Boulez.
ETA: Also, to be clear, my claim isn’t that German-and-Austrian-influenced historians unfairly leave out or devalue other composers from the period 1600-1900; it’s that they elevate that particular period itself to an unjustifiably high status relative to other periods (which in my view has hindered the development of music theory).
This is, of course, a fully general counter-argument: any time someone points to a cluster, you can say ‘well those and those influenced by them wrote the history so of course we see a cluster’.
For those who don’t accept this fully general counter-argument, Murray considered precisely this national/linguistic argument about bias and examined sources written in a foreign language—eg. what did the Japanese textbooks have to say about German music? He found that this corrective did change rankings and scores… for literature. pg 486:
To quote his longer discussion in chapter 5:
To be clear, my argument wasn’t directed against Murray, but at his sources. I don’t doubt that Murray more or less correctly measured what he was trying to measure (whether or not that measurement has whatever significance he attributes to it, I don’t know; I haven’t read his book).
My real interest is in “debunking” the notion of the “common-practice period”; I would instead prefer to call the period in question the “Germanic period” or something similar. It isn’t really a question of quality: personally, I happen to agree that there is something special about Viennese classicism (i.e. Haydn, Mozart, and Beethoven) but I wouldn’t assign a similar specialness to Pachelbel and Reger while leaving out Gesualdo and Boulez.
ETA: Also, to be clear, my claim isn’t that German-and-Austrian-influenced historians unfairly leave out or devalue other composers from the period 1600-1900; it’s that they elevate that particular period itself to an unjustifiably high status relative to other periods (which in my view has hindered the development of music theory).
Well, why did non-German historians go along with it, then?