And not everyone is attracted to everyone else, but I see no reason not to be close with your family in this way.
I still don’t get it, and am genuinely trying to figure out what the inferential gap is. It sort of sounds like you’re saying sex produces the warm fuzzies of closer social bonding regardless of whether the participants are attracted to each other.
If that is what you are saying, then that sounds like the typical mind fallacy at work. I, for one, would not get warm fuzzies from sex with someone unattractive whether they are related to me or not.
If that’s not what you are saying, please clarify.
It sort of sounds like you’re saying sex produces the warm fuzzies of closer social bonding regardless of whether the participants are attracted to each other.
Nope. I just mean mean it’s totally OK to be attracted and so on. It’s less radical than you seem to think.
My original response didn’t disagree with that. I wasn’t objecting to the “incest is fine” part. I was specifically challenging ’...and is probably a good experience to have” as being an overgeneralization that is untrue for many, and probably, most people.
How is it different than saying “Sex is fine, and is probably a good experience to have” in response to puritanical notions about celibacy? Nowhere does it say it should be mandatory or that you absolutely have to have sex with anyone who asks.
“Sex (insert qualifiers of your choosing) is immoral” is a normative claim. ”Many people are not attracted to family members, and sex with an unattractive partner does not provide warm fuzzies” is an empirical claim.
“Sex is probably a good experience to have” is challenging the validity of the moral claim. ”Sex with people you aren’t attracted to is probably a good experience to have”… do I really need to provide further refutation once it’s stated like that?
I still don’t get it, and am genuinely trying to figure out what the inferential gap is. It sort of sounds like you’re saying sex produces the warm fuzzies of closer social bonding regardless of whether the participants are attracted to each other.
If that is what you are saying, then that sounds like the typical mind fallacy at work. I, for one, would not get warm fuzzies from sex with someone unattractive whether they are related to me or not.
If that’s not what you are saying, please clarify.
Nope. I just mean mean it’s totally OK to be attracted and so on. It’s less radical than you seem to think.
My original response didn’t disagree with that. I wasn’t objecting to the “incest is fine” part. I was specifically challenging ’...and is probably a good experience to have” as being an overgeneralization that is untrue for many, and probably, most people.
How is it different than saying “Sex is fine, and is probably a good experience to have” in response to puritanical notions about celibacy? Nowhere does it say it should be mandatory or that you absolutely have to have sex with anyone who asks.
“Sex (insert qualifiers of your choosing) is immoral” is a normative claim.
”Many people are not attracted to family members, and sex with an unattractive partner does not provide warm fuzzies” is an empirical claim.
“Sex is probably a good experience to have” is challenging the validity of the moral claim.
”Sex with people you aren’t attracted to is probably a good experience to have”… do I really need to provide further refutation once it’s stated like that?