My original response didn’t disagree with that. I wasn’t objecting to the “incest is fine” part. I was specifically challenging ’...and is probably a good experience to have” as being an overgeneralization that is untrue for many, and probably, most people.
How is it different than saying “Sex is fine, and is probably a good experience to have” in response to puritanical notions about celibacy? Nowhere does it say it should be mandatory or that you absolutely have to have sex with anyone who asks.
“Sex (insert qualifiers of your choosing) is immoral” is a normative claim. ”Many people are not attracted to family members, and sex with an unattractive partner does not provide warm fuzzies” is an empirical claim.
“Sex is probably a good experience to have” is challenging the validity of the moral claim. ”Sex with people you aren’t attracted to is probably a good experience to have”… do I really need to provide further refutation once it’s stated like that?
My original response didn’t disagree with that. I wasn’t objecting to the “incest is fine” part. I was specifically challenging ’...and is probably a good experience to have” as being an overgeneralization that is untrue for many, and probably, most people.
How is it different than saying “Sex is fine, and is probably a good experience to have” in response to puritanical notions about celibacy? Nowhere does it say it should be mandatory or that you absolutely have to have sex with anyone who asks.
“Sex (insert qualifiers of your choosing) is immoral” is a normative claim.
”Many people are not attracted to family members, and sex with an unattractive partner does not provide warm fuzzies” is an empirical claim.
“Sex is probably a good experience to have” is challenging the validity of the moral claim.
”Sex with people you aren’t attracted to is probably a good experience to have”… do I really need to provide further refutation once it’s stated like that?