Isn’t this just messing up Bayes rule on their part? AFAIU, the multiplicative increase in the log odds is not particularly meaningful [Edit: I’m currently interpreting the downvote as either my explanation not being sufficiently charitable or me being wrong about the multiplicative increase in log odds. Would be down to hear more about the mistake I’m making]
Isn’t this just messing up Bayes rule on their part? AFAIU, the multiplicative increase in the log odds is not particularly meaningful [Edit: I’m currently interpreting the downvote as either my explanation not being sufficiently charitable or me being wrong about the multiplicative increase in log odds. Would be down to hear more about the mistake I’m making]