Sorry, am I misunderstanding something? I think taking “clinically significant symptoms”, specific to the UC system, as a given is wrong because it did not directly address either of my two criticisms:
1. Clinically significant symptoms =/= clinically diagnosed even in worlds where there is a 1:1 relationship between clinically significant symptoms and would have been clinically diagnosed, as many people do not get diagnosed
2. Clinically significant symptoms do not have a 1:1 relationship with would have been clinically diagnosed.
Well, I agree that the actual prevalence you have in mind would be roughly half of 38% i.e. ~20%. That is still much higher than the 12% you arrived at. And either value is so high that there is little surprise some severe episodes of some people happened in a 5-year frame.
Sorry, am I misunderstanding something? I think taking “clinically significant symptoms”, specific to the UC system, as a given is wrong because it did not directly address either of my two criticisms:
1. Clinically significant symptoms =/= clinically diagnosed even in worlds where there is a 1:1 relationship between clinically significant symptoms and would have been clinically diagnosed, as many people do not get diagnosed
2. Clinically significant symptoms do not have a 1:1 relationship with would have been clinically diagnosed.
Well, I agree that the actual prevalence you have in mind would be roughly half of 38% i.e. ~20%. That is still much higher than the 12% you arrived at. And either value is so high that there is little surprise some severe episodes of some people happened in a 5-year frame.