The point it makes is valid. It is, however, irrelevant and strawman to the point that I made to which it apparently attempts to respond: The science might be right, but the implemented system is potentially-insane, as shown by anecdotal evidence, because it seems to us that the agents of the system do not apply the science and knowledge in question whether it’s correct or not.
In fact, the agents appear to completely ignore the system’s potential rules and instead rely on the Universal Theory of Magic. Whether the study is correct or not, whether it is informative or not, whether it is biased or not, whether it is useful or not… is all completely ignored by the agents of the system, by my observations.
Even “anecdotal” evidence is sufficient for a posterior to become P(There Cannot Ever Be A Case Where X | Anecdote of X) < 1.
If you read carefully, you’ll notice that I wrote potentially-insane. Not “It Must Be Insane Because [Insert Anecdote X]”.
If I’m wrong, please point to me where I’ve misinterpreted / misread Bayes’ Theorem on this. I’d really like to get rid of this irrational manner of thought ASAP.
The point it makes is valid. It is, however, irrelevant and strawman to the point that I made to which it apparently attempts to respond: The science might be right, but the implemented system is potentially-insane, as shown by anecdotal evidence, because it seems to us that the agents of the system do not apply the science and knowledge in question whether it’s correct or not.
In fact, the agents appear to completely ignore the system’s potential rules and instead rely on the Universal Theory of Magic. Whether the study is correct or not, whether it is informative or not, whether it is biased or not, whether it is useful or not… is all completely ignored by the agents of the system, by my observations.
...
Even “anecdotal” evidence is sufficient for a posterior to become P(There Cannot Ever Be A Case Where X | Anecdote of X) < 1.
If you read carefully, you’ll notice that I wrote potentially-insane. Not “It Must Be Insane Because [Insert Anecdote X]”.
If I’m wrong, please point to me where I’ve misinterpreted / misread Bayes’ Theorem on this. I’d really like to get rid of this irrational manner of thought ASAP.