Even “anecdotal” evidence is sufficient for a posterior to become P(There Cannot Ever Be A Case Where X | Anecdote of X) < 1.
If you read carefully, you’ll notice that I wrote potentially-insane. Not “It Must Be Insane Because [Insert Anecdote X]”.
If I’m wrong, please point to me where I’ve misinterpreted / misread Bayes’ Theorem on this. I’d really like to get rid of this irrational manner of thought ASAP.
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Even “anecdotal” evidence is sufficient for a posterior to become P(There Cannot Ever Be A Case Where X | Anecdote of X) < 1.
If you read carefully, you’ll notice that I wrote potentially-insane. Not “It Must Be Insane Because [Insert Anecdote X]”.
If I’m wrong, please point to me where I’ve misinterpreted / misread Bayes’ Theorem on this. I’d really like to get rid of this irrational manner of thought ASAP.