That’s more technically problematic; how could non-human animals vote in the existing kinds of elections? Human intermediaries would have to decide what was best for the non-humans they represented. Different human political factions would support different positions as being best for the non-humans, and fight over that.
(This of course doesn’t apply to future possible non-human sentients like AI, uploads, uplifted animals, modified humans, etc.)
In Jasay’s terminology, the first is a liberty (a relation between a person and an act) and the rest are rights {relations between two or more persons (at least one rightholder and one obligor) and an act}. I find this distnction useful for thinking more clearly about these kinds of topics. Your mileage may vary.
I was actually referring to the the third being what I might call an anti-liberty, i.e., you aren’t allowed to work more than eight-hours a day, and the fact that is most definitely not enforced nor widely considered a human right.
How is that different from pointing out that you’re not allowed to sell yourself into slavery (not even partially, as in signing a contract to work for ten years and not being able to legally break it), or that you’re not allowed to sell your vote?
I thought eight-hours workdays were about employers not being allowed to demand that employees work more than eight hours a day; I didn’t know you weren’t technically allowed to do that at all even if you’re OK with it.
You are allowed to work more than eight hours per day. It’s just that in many industries, employers must pay you overtime if you do so.
Even if employers were prohibited from using “willingness to work more than 8 hours per day” as a condition for employment, long workdays would probably soon become the norm.
Thus a more feasible way to limit workdays is to constrain employees rather than employers.
To see why, assume that without any restrictions on workday length, workers supply more than 8 hours. Let’s say, without loss of generality, that they supply 10. (In other words, the equilibrium quantity supplied is ten.)
If employers can’t demand the equilibrium quantity, but they’re still willing to pay to get it, then employees will have the incentive to supply it. In their competition for jobs (finding them and keeping them), employees will be supply labor up until the equilibrium quantity, regardless of whether the bosses demand it.
Working more looks good. Everyone knows that; you don’t need your boss to tell you. So if there’s competition for your spot or for a spot that you want, it would serve you well to work more.
So if your goal is to prevent ten-hour days, you’d better stop people from supplying them.
At least, this makes sense to me. But I’m no microeconomist. Perhaps we have one on LW who can state this more clearly (or who can correct any mistakes I’ve made).
See Lochner v. New York. Within the last five years there was a French strike (riot? don’t remember exactly) over a law that would limit the workweek of bakers, which would have the impact of driving small bakeries out of business, since they would need to employ (and pay benefits on) 2 bakers rather than just 1. Perhaps a French LWer remembers more details?
It would be very hard to distinguish when people were doing it because they wanted to, and when employers were demanding it. Maybe some employees are working that extra time, but one isn’t. The one that isn’t happens to be fired later on, for unrelated reasons. How do you determine that worker’s unwillingness to work extra hours is not one of the reasons they were fired? Whether it is or not, that happening will likely encourage workers to go beyond the eight hours, because the last one that didn’t got fired, and a relationship will be drawn whether there is one or not.
It’s not like you can fire employees on a whim: the “unrelated reasons” have to be substantial ones, and it’s not clear you can find ones for any employee you want to fire. (Otherwise, you could use such a mechanism to de facto compel your employees to do pretty much anything you want.)
Also, even if you somehow did manage to de facto demand workers to work ten hours a day, if you have to pay hours beyond the eighth as overtime (with a hourly wage substantially higher than the regular one), then it’s cheaper for you to hire ten people eight hours a day each than eight people ten hours a day.
One of these things is not like the others.
Yes, no state has ever implemented truly universal suffrage (among minors).
Or non-humans.
That’s more technically problematic; how could non-human animals vote in the existing kinds of elections? Human intermediaries would have to decide what was best for the non-humans they represented. Different human political factions would support different positions as being best for the non-humans, and fight over that.
(This of course doesn’t apply to future possible non-human sentients like AI, uploads, uplifted animals, modified humans, etc.)
Lead them into the voting booth, see which lever they press.
The same is true of some minors. (Though, of course, not all.)
In Jasay’s terminology, the first is a liberty (a relation between a person and an act) and the rest are rights {relations between two or more persons (at least one rightholder and one obligor) and an act}. I find this distnction useful for thinking more clearly about these kinds of topics. Your mileage may vary.
I was actually referring to the the third being what I might call an anti-liberty, i.e., you aren’t allowed to work more than eight-hours a day, and the fact that is most definitely not enforced nor widely considered a human right.
How is that different from pointing out that you’re not allowed to sell yourself into slavery (not even partially, as in signing a contract to work for ten years and not being able to legally break it), or that you’re not allowed to sell your vote?
I’d say each of the three can be said to be unlike the others:
abolition falls under Liberty
universal suffrage falls under Equality
eight-hour workdays falls under Solidarity
So “all of these things are not like the others”.
I thought eight-hours workdays were about employers not being allowed to demand that employees work more than eight hours a day; I didn’t know you weren’t technically allowed to do that at all even if you’re OK with it.
You are allowed to work more than eight hours per day. It’s just that in many industries, employers must pay you overtime if you do so.
Even if employers were prohibited from using “willingness to work more than 8 hours per day” as a condition for employment, long workdays would probably soon become the norm.
Thus a more feasible way to limit workdays is to constrain employees rather than employers.
To see why, assume that without any restrictions on workday length, workers supply more than 8 hours. Let’s say, without loss of generality, that they supply 10. (In other words, the equilibrium quantity supplied is ten.)
If employers can’t demand the equilibrium quantity, but they’re still willing to pay to get it, then employees will have the incentive to supply it. In their competition for jobs (finding them and keeping them), employees will be supply labor up until the equilibrium quantity, regardless of whether the bosses demand it.
Working more looks good. Everyone knows that; you don’t need your boss to tell you. So if there’s competition for your spot or for a spot that you want, it would serve you well to work more.
So if your goal is to prevent ten-hour days, you’d better stop people from supplying them.
At least, this makes sense to me. But I’m no microeconomist. Perhaps we have one on LW who can state this more clearly (or who can correct any mistakes I’ve made).
See Lochner v. New York. Within the last five years there was a French strike (riot? don’t remember exactly) over a law that would limit the workweek of bakers, which would have the impact of driving small bakeries out of business, since they would need to employ (and pay benefits on) 2 bakers rather than just 1. Perhaps a French LWer remembers more details?
It would be very hard to distinguish when people were doing it because they wanted to, and when employers were demanding it. Maybe some employees are working that extra time, but one isn’t. The one that isn’t happens to be fired later on, for unrelated reasons. How do you determine that worker’s unwillingness to work extra hours is not one of the reasons they were fired? Whether it is or not, that happening will likely encourage workers to go beyond the eight hours, because the last one that didn’t got fired, and a relationship will be drawn whether there is one or not.
It’s not like you can fire employees on a whim: the “unrelated reasons” have to be substantial ones, and it’s not clear you can find ones for any employee you want to fire. (Otherwise, you could use such a mechanism to de facto compel your employees to do pretty much anything you want.)
Also, even if you somehow did manage to de facto demand workers to work ten hours a day, if you have to pay hours beyond the eighth as overtime (with a hourly wage substantially higher than the regular one), then it’s cheaper for you to hire ten people eight hours a day each than eight people ten hours a day.
Under American law, you basically can fire an employee “on a whim” as long as it isn’t a prohibited reason.
Only if they can’t get another job.
That assumption isn’t that far-fetched. Also, the same applies to doing that to compel them to work extra time (or am I missing something?).