that’s just silly, and there’s no particular reason why that would even be true, if the other isn’t.
I was under the impression that in canon, at least, the Deathly Hallows are sensitive to ‘ownership,’ and so Dumbledore might think that giving the cloak owned by Harry to Harry is the best way for the cloak to end up being owned by Dumbledore.
I was under the impression that in canon, at least, the Deathly Hallows are sensitive to ‘ownership,’ and so Dumbledore might think that giving the cloak owned by Harry to Harry is the best way for the cloak to end up being owned by Dumbledore.