The description of the coin flips having a Binomial(n=?,p) distribution, instead of a Bernoulli(p) distribution, might be a cause of the mis-reading.
Perhaps—obviously each coin is flipped just once, i.e. Binomial(n=1,p), which is the same thing as Bernoulli(p). I was trying to point out that for any other n it would work the same as a normal coin, if someone were to keep flipping it.
The description of the coin flips having a Binomial(n=?,p) distribution, instead of a Bernoulli(p) distribution, might be a cause of the mis-reading.
Perhaps—obviously each coin is flipped just once, i.e. Binomial(n=1,p), which is the same thing as Bernoulli(p). I was trying to point out that for any other n it would work the same as a normal coin, if someone were to keep flipping it.