The claim is that relative time is a measurement determined by the senses, based on change.
That’s explictly what Newton defined it as, but I’m pretty sure it was understood since before Plato and into modern times including Einstein and Everett.
The trouble is that that statement—which you are repeatedly restating in pretty much exactly the same words, which obviously isn’t going to clarify anything—is ambiguous.
If I take seriously “determined by the senses” then it seems you’re saying, e.g., that if we carry out some physical experiment in which no actual sentient observers are in relative motion then we won’t see the effects of relativity. Obviously it’s easy to test that by a suitable arrangement of, say, atomic clocks and recording equipment, and I think we all know what the outcome will be, and it isn’t one that makes Einsteinian relativity dependent on anyone’s senses.
On the other hand, if you’re not saying that then this has (again) a whiff of the “But I tell you the sun really does rise in the east!” about it. What is it that you think anyone disagrees with?
(For instance: Suppose I say that to give “relative time” a precise meaning we should take it to mean “proper time”, and that proper time could be defined as what someone moving along a given trajectory and observing (say) oscillating caesium atoms would measure. If I say that, am I agreeing with your statement about relative time? Because it seems to me that’s something plenty of physicists would say, and I don’t see why you’re presenting it as something bravely controversial that no one believes any more.)
Einstein, Everett, Newton, and basically every great thinker prior to 1960 all thought relative time was a measurment.
The fact that anyone would even dream that this is a controversial claim, speaks to how messed up our contemporary understanding of reality is.
I’m still trying to find out exactly what claim you think it is, whether controversial or not.
The claim is that relative time is a measurement determined by the senses, based on change.
That’s explictly what Newton defined it as, but I’m pretty sure it was understood since before Plato and into modern times including Einstein and Everett.
The trouble is that that statement—which you are repeatedly restating in pretty much exactly the same words, which obviously isn’t going to clarify anything—is ambiguous.
If I take seriously “determined by the senses” then it seems you’re saying, e.g., that if we carry out some physical experiment in which no actual sentient observers are in relative motion then we won’t see the effects of relativity. Obviously it’s easy to test that by a suitable arrangement of, say, atomic clocks and recording equipment, and I think we all know what the outcome will be, and it isn’t one that makes Einsteinian relativity dependent on anyone’s senses.
On the other hand, if you’re not saying that then this has (again) a whiff of the “But I tell you the sun really does rise in the east!” about it. What is it that you think anyone disagrees with?
(For instance: Suppose I say that to give “relative time” a precise meaning we should take it to mean “proper time”, and that proper time could be defined as what someone moving along a given trajectory and observing (say) oscillating caesium atoms would measure. If I say that, am I agreeing with your statement about relative time? Because it seems to me that’s something plenty of physicists would say, and I don’t see why you’re presenting it as something bravely controversial that no one believes any more.)