Descriptively I know that hyperbolic discounting is a thing. But prescriptively, it’s not clear to me that it should be. Do you mind elaborating on why you think it should be?
Also, I think this only really starts to change the conclusions we draw when the discounting is significant, eg. a post-singularity year going from $100k to $10k rather than $100k to $90k. It sounds like you are saying it should be significant. Is that true? Why is that?
Descriptively I know that hyperbolic discounting is a thing. But prescriptively, it’s not clear to me that it should be. Do you mind elaborating on why you think it should be?
Also, I think this only really starts to change the conclusions we draw when the discounting is significant, eg. a post-singularity year going from $100k to $10k rather than $100k to $90k. It sounds like you are saying it should be significant. Is that true? Why is that?