If I replace “economic variables” with “astronomy” what part of this sentence changes in implication?
One can do controlled experiments in physics here on Earth and apply the results to astronomy.
So that’s true, but until the late 1700s (essentially post Newton) no one had any capacity to do so (because no ideas anyone had connected the two at all in a useful way). Would this sort of claim then been valid in 1650?
One can do controlled experiments in physics here on Earth and apply the results to astronomy.
So that’s true, but until the late 1700s (essentially post Newton) no one had any capacity to do so (because no ideas anyone had connected the two at all in a useful way). Would this sort of claim then been valid in 1650?