Given the strong influence of IQ on socioeconomic status, even without controlling for IQ explicitly, there’s still going to be substantial controlling for IQ that way.
Are you arguing for the sake of arguing a methodological point, or do you seriously think that this point has a >50% chance of making the theoretically predicted and empirically confirmed phenomenon of inbreeding depression just go away?
I don’t think it makes the inbreeding effect go away completely, but it seems worth considering if there are other contributing factors to the observed effect. (Probability less than 50%, but I think worth tracking.)
I would be careful about dismissing “methodological points”. The methodological standards are there for a reason.
Do “socioeconomic factors” include the parents’ IQ?
Given the strong influence of IQ on socioeconomic status, even without controlling for IQ explicitly, there’s still going to be substantial controlling for IQ that way.
That would not be enough control if IQ has influence on whether someone marries their cousin.
Are you arguing for the sake of arguing a methodological point, or do you seriously think that this point has a >50% chance of making the theoretically predicted and empirically confirmed phenomenon of inbreeding depression just go away?
I don’t think it makes the inbreeding effect go away completely, but it seems worth considering if there are other contributing factors to the observed effect. (Probability less than 50%, but I think worth tracking.)
I would be careful about dismissing “methodological points”. The methodological standards are there for a reason.