Are you arguing for the sake of arguing a methodological point, or do you seriously think that this point has a >50% chance of making the theoretically predicted and empirically confirmed phenomenon of inbreeding depression just go away?
I don’t think it makes the inbreeding effect go away completely, but it seems worth considering if there are other contributing factors to the observed effect. (Probability less than 50%, but I think worth tracking.)
I would be careful about dismissing “methodological points”. The methodological standards are there for a reason.
Are you arguing for the sake of arguing a methodological point, or do you seriously think that this point has a >50% chance of making the theoretically predicted and empirically confirmed phenomenon of inbreeding depression just go away?
I don’t think it makes the inbreeding effect go away completely, but it seems worth considering if there are other contributing factors to the observed effect. (Probability less than 50%, but I think worth tracking.)
I would be careful about dismissing “methodological points”. The methodological standards are there for a reason.