“Renormalizing leaves us with a 1⁄3 probability of two boys, and a 2⁄3 probability of one boy one girl.” help me with this one, i’m n00b. If one of the kids is known to be a boy (given information), then doesn’t the other one has 50⁄50 chances to be either a boy or a girl? And then having 50⁄50 chances for the couple of kids to be either a pair of boys or one boy one girl?
nono
Karma: 4
I’ve got the same questions as Psy-Kosh and DavidAgain. Why?