Not if the point of the argument is to establish that a superintelligence is compatible with achieving the best possible outcome.
Here is a parody of the issue, which is somewhat unfair and leaves out almost all of your argument, but which I hope makes clear the issue I have in mind:
“Proof that a superintelligence can lead to the best possible outcome: Suppose by some method we achieved the best possible outcome. Then, there’s no properties we would want a superintelligence to have beyond that, so let’s call however we achieved the best possible outcome, ‘a superintelligence’. Then, it is possible to have a superintelligence produce the best possible outcome, QED.”
In order for an argument to be compelling for the conclusion “It is possible for a superintelligence to lead to good outcomes.” you need to use a meaning of “a superintelligence” in the argument, such that the statement “It is possible for a superintelligence to lead to good outcomes”, when interpreted with that meaning of “a superintelligence”, produces the meaning you want that sentence to have? If I argue “it is possible for a superintelligence, by which I mean computer with a clock speed faster than N, to lead to good outcomes”, then, even if I convincingly argue that a computer with a clock speed faster than N can lead to good outcomes, that shouldn’t convince people that it is possible for a superintelligence, in the sense that they have in mind (presumably not defined as “a computer with a clock speed faster than N”), is compatible with good outcomes.
Now, in your argument you say that a superintelligence would presumably be some computational process. True enough! If you then showed that some predicate is true of every computational process, you would then be justified in concluding that that predicate is (presumably) true of every possible superintelligence. But instead, you seem to have argued that a predicate is true of some computational process, and then concluded that it is therefore true of some possible superintelligence. This does not follow.
It seems to make sense that if hiring an additional employee provides marginal shareholder value, that the company will hire additional employees. So, when the company stops hiring employees, it seems reasonable that this is because the marginal benefit of hiring an additional employee is not positive. However, I don’t see why this should suggest that the company is likely to hire an employee that provides a marginal value of 0 or negative.
“Number of employees” is not a continuous variable. When hiring an additional employee, how this changes what the marginal benefit of an additional employee can be large enough to change it from positive to negative.
Of course, when making a hiring decision, the actual marginal benefit isn’t known, but something one has a belief about how likely the hire is to provide each different amount of value. I suppose then one can just consider the marginal expected benefit or whatever wherever I said “marginal benefit”. Though I guess there’s also something to be said there about appetite-for-risk or whatever.
I guess there’s the possibility that:
1) the marginal expected benefit of hiring a certain potential new employee is strictly positive
2) it turns out that the actual marginal benefit of employing that person is negative
3) it turns out to be difficult for the company to determine/notice that they would be better off without that employee
and that this could result in the company accumulating employees/positions it would be better off not having?