Maybe this has already been considered but has anyone noted that even without introducing complexity at all, you can at least say that some programs are more likely simply because there is no uniform distribution on a countably infinite set, no matter which probability measure or which way you label the set there must be at most a finite number of programs with the same probability.
Hopefully there’s someone still here after 10 years XD.
Maybe this has already been considered but has anyone noted that even without introducing complexity at all, you can at least say that some programs are more likely simply because there is no uniform distribution on a countably infinite set, no matter which probability measure or which way you label the set there must be at most a finite number of programs with the same probability.
Hopefully there’s someone still here after 10 years XD.