That there is a set of all countable ordinals is one thing; that it can be well-ordered is quite another. Not to mention that I doubt you can prove omega_1 exists in Z, which has quite a few uncountable sets.
That depends on what you mean by “well-ordered”. My philosophy of doing constructive mathematics (mathematics without excluded middle, and often with other restrictions) is that one should define terms as much as possible so that the usual theorems (including the theorems that the motivating examples are examples) become true, so long as the definitions are classically (that is using the usually accepted axioms) equivalent to the usual definitions.
As the motivating example of a well-ordered set is the set of natural numbers, we should use a definition that makes this an example. Such a definition may be found at a math wiki where I contribute my research (such as it is). Then (adopting a parallel definition of “ordinal”) it remains a theorem that every set of ordinals is well-ordered.
That there is a set of all countable ordinals is one thing; that it can be well-ordered is quite another. Not to mention that I doubt you can prove omega_1 exists in Z, which has quite a few uncountable sets.
You don’t need Z, third-order arithmetic is sufficient. Every set of ordinals is well-ordered by the usual ordering of ordinals.
Only if you accept excluded middle.
That depends on what you mean by “well-ordered”. My philosophy of doing constructive mathematics (mathematics without excluded middle, and often with other restrictions) is that one should define terms as much as possible so that the usual theorems (including the theorems that the motivating examples are examples) become true, so long as the definitions are classically (that is using the usually accepted axioms) equivalent to the usual definitions.
As the motivating example of a well-ordered set is the set of natural numbers, we should use a definition that makes this an example. Such a definition may be found at a math wiki where I contribute my research (such as it is). Then (adopting a parallel definition of “ordinal”) it remains a theorem that every set of ordinals is well-ordered.