I’m afraid I don’t follow the maths involved, but I’d like to know whether the equations work out differently if you take this premise:
- Since 1A offers a certainty of $24,000, it is deemed to be immediately in your possession. 1B then becomes a 33⁄34 chance of winning $3,000 and 1⁄34 chance of losing $24,000.
Can someone tell me how this works out mathematically, and how it then compares to 2B?
I’m afraid I don’t follow the maths involved, but I’d like to know whether the equations work out differently if you take this premise:
- Since 1A offers a certainty of $24,000, it is deemed to be immediately in your possession. 1B then becomes a 33⁄34 chance of winning $3,000 and 1⁄34 chance of losing $24,000.
Can someone tell me how this works out mathematically, and how it then compares to 2B?