I have argued that in practice, instrumental rationality cannot be maintained seprately from epistemic rationality, and that epistemic rationality could lead to moral objectivism, as many philosophers have argued. I don’t think that those arguments are refuted by stipulatively defining “rationality” as “nothing to do with morality”.
I have argued that in practice, instrumental rationality cannot be maintained seprately from epistemic rationality, and that epistemic rationality could lead to moral objectivism, as many philosophers have argued. I don’t think that those arguments are refuted by stipulatively defining “rationality” as “nothing to do with morality”.