Here are 100 people. A few of them are really happy, but the rest are all fairly miserable. What to do? Kill all the miserable ones, then the average happiness shoots up!
That’s my view of quantum suicide, and just to spell it out, I think it’s pretty silly. That all 100 of the people are, in some sense, “you” does not change my view of it. Moving to New York in order to make sure that a nuclear war would kill you is like getting a DNR notice put on your bed in hospital. It may be a sensible thing to do, but if so is independent of MWI.
Note: Math on infinite sets works differently than math on finite sets. Anyway, if you have a good argument as to why measure matters here, I’d love to hear it.
I am familiar with infinite sets. As for measure, the entire QS argument is about the proportion of your measure in favourable scenarios. If you have a good argument as to why total measure does not matter but proportion of measure does, I’d love to hear it. Make sure that the answer is consistent with your implied view that total measure does matter on finite sets.
What is that way?
Here are 100 people. A few of them are really happy, but the rest are all fairly miserable. What to do? Kill all the miserable ones, then the average happiness shoots up!
That’s my view of quantum suicide, and just to spell it out, I think it’s pretty silly. That all 100 of the people are, in some sense, “you” does not change my view of it. Moving to New York in order to make sure that a nuclear war would kill you is like getting a DNR notice put on your bed in hospital. It may be a sensible thing to do, but if so is independent of MWI.
Note: Math on infinite sets works differently than math on finite sets. Anyway, if you have a good argument as to why measure matters here, I’d love to hear it.
I am familiar with infinite sets. As for measure, the entire QS argument is about the proportion of your measure in favourable scenarios. If you have a good argument as to why total measure does not matter but proportion of measure does, I’d love to hear it. Make sure that the answer is consistent with your implied view that total measure does matter on finite sets.
I don’t have a very good argument for either side, which is why I am not discounting one or the other.