Is it really the case? For start I’d like to have an objective and not entirely arbitrary way of measuring how much likely various effects are attributed to markets and other factors. Speculations framed as “why people dislike X” by someone who happens to like X are always suspect of tribal politics, especially when the suggested answer points to some failure of rationality. Of course, such speculations aren’t necessarily useless because of that, but one should at least be certain that one is trying to explain a real phenomenon.
Is it really the case? For start I’d like to have an objective and not entirely arbitrary way of measuring how much likely various effects are attributed to markets and other factors. Speculations framed as “why people dislike X” by someone who happens to like X are always suspect of tribal politics, especially when the suggested answer points to some failure of rationality. Of course, such speculations aren’t necessarily useless because of that, but one should at least be certain that one is trying to explain a real phenomenon.