I am aware of how infinitesimals work. However, consider Bayes’ theorem: If you have an infinitesimal prior, you have to find evidence weighted ω:1 in order to end up with a real posterior probability.
I am aware of how infinitesimals work. However, consider Bayes’ theorem: If you have an infinitesimal prior, you have to find evidence weighted ω:1 in order to end up with a real posterior probability.