Eliezer is saying that if “objective morality” “existed”, objective morality still wouldn’t exist. He’s not saying that there’s no such thing—he’s saying that there can’t be any such thing; that the concept is incoherent; he’s illustrating that the hypothetical scenario where “objective morality exists” can’t be consistently constructed. It is, in a sense, a proof by contradiction.
...as well as one about Jorterder’s wrongness.
Sorry, no, you’ve misunderstood.
Note how they are interconnected. If EY hasn’t claimed that objective morality is incoherent, then his claim that he wouldn’t follow it must be based on something other than “I can’t follow what doesn’t exist”. In fact what he says is just that “pain is bad” is obviously true.
Incidentally, the word “incoherent” doesn’t appear in the linked posting by EY.
He might well be claiming it, but he isn’t validly arguing for it. The claim about pain might be
A) begging the question in favour of subjective morality
B) semantic confusion about the meaning of “bad”
Or
C) insistence that if moral facts aren’t motivating, they don’t exist.
But none of those arguments is particularly strong.
That’s as may be, but it’s not pertinent to the question of whether the OP’s criticism is valid.
You made a claim about EY’s correctness ….
...as well as one about Jorterder’s wrongness.
Note how they are interconnected. If EY hasn’t claimed that objective morality is incoherent, then his claim that he wouldn’t follow it must be based on something other than “I can’t follow what doesn’t exist”. In fact what he says is just that “pain is bad” is obviously true.
Incidentally, the word “incoherent” doesn’t appear in the linked posting by EY.