1e-30 is the probability that two randomly selected women are both billionaire-adjacent and top-10 tennis players, assuming no correlation between the two. To compare to the observed 20%, you need to instead calculate the probability that a woman is a billionaire, conditional on being a top-10 tennis player, assuming no correlation. Using the binomial formula, the probability of having exactly two billionaire women in the top 10 is about 4.5e-11. (The probability of having more than two billionaire women in the top ten is negligible relative to the probability of having exactly two, so the probability of having two or more is also about 4.5e-11.) That’s almost twenty orders of magnitude larger than what you reported. But it’s still really small, so your point that these cannot be independent is correct.
Your math is wrong.
1e-30 is the probability that two randomly selected women are both billionaire-adjacent and top-10 tennis players, assuming no correlation between the two. To compare to the observed 20%, you need to instead calculate the probability that a woman is a billionaire, conditional on being a top-10 tennis player, assuming no correlation. Using the binomial formula, the probability of having exactly two billionaire women in the top 10 is about 4.5e-11. (The probability of having more than two billionaire women in the top ten is negligible relative to the probability of having exactly two, so the probability of having two or more is also about 4.5e-11.) That’s almost twenty orders of magnitude larger than what you reported. But it’s still really small, so your point that these cannot be independent is correct.