I do not find it plausible that almost all Englishmen[1] in 1949 believed that there should be no constraints on how criminals are treated other than the overall interests of “the collective”; do you, really?
He might hope that they do not, when this consequence of their expressed views is argued to them.
He might hope that they do not, when this consequence of their expressed views is argued to them.
He might. But, as I explained, I don’t think it is a consequence of their expressed views.