Because all of the deductions one can get from it have already been made, and amply confirmed.
Funny how they were all made before anyone suggested they were deducible from atheism.
The basic idea that nature can be understood, if we look carefully enough and avoid resorting to the supernatural
… was originally predicted as a result of a rational Creator, not the lack of one. Arguably it was the wrong deduction given the premise, but still.
Let me repeat myself.
If a hypothesis actually gave enough information to deduce our current model of the universe plus or minus how uncertain we are about it, what are the odds it wouldn’t reveal more?
If an atheist from any period up to the present could have gained information not already discovered (but that we now know, of course) why does this effect mysteriously vanish when we move from a hypothetical past atheist to actual current atheists living in the modern world?
This reminds me of people who claim that they rationally evaluated everything they grew up being taught, and lo and behold they were right about everything already, despite having believed it for arational reasons.
The basic idea that nature can be understood, if we look carefully enough and avoid resorting to the supernatural
… was originally predicted as a result of a rational Creator, not the lack of one. Arguably it was the wrong deduction given the premise, but still.
Other way around, I would think. References? Everyone was a theist back in the days of Roger Bacon, they had to be. So did anyone decide, “God is rational”, and then deduce “we can attain all manner of powers if we just investigate how things work”? Or was it a case of discovering the effectiveness of empirical investigation, then deducing the rationality of God—either from genuine faith or just as a way of avoiding charges of heresy?
If an atheist from any period up to the present could have gained information not already discovered (but that we now know, of course) why does this effect mysteriously vanish when we move from a hypothetical past atheist to actual current atheists living in the modern world?
Because, as I said, it’s been done, mined out before open atheism was even a thing. “There is no God” has precious little implication beyond “this is not a benevolent universe and it’s up to us to figure everything out and save ourselves.” In contrast, “There is a God (of the Christian/Jewish/Muslim type)” leads to the false prediction that the universe is benevolent, rescued by postulating hidden or mysterious benevolence. The theist can take their pick of it being understandable (“the rational works of a rational God”) or not (“mysterious ways”), although the former is in some conflict with the postulate of benevolence passing human understanding.
Here’s a small piece of corroborating evidence while I try and remember:
‘Men became scientific because they expected Law in Nature, and they expected Law in Nature because they believed in a Legislator. In most modern scientists this belief has died: it will be interesting to see how long their confidence in uniformity survives it. Two significant developments have already appeared—the hypothesis of a lawless sub-nature, and the surrender of the claim that science is true. We may be living nearer than we suppose to the end of the Scientific Age.’
-Lewis, C.S., Miracles: a preliminary study, Collins, London, p. 110, 1947.
Because, as I said, it’s been done, mined out before open atheism was even a thing.
It’s possible I was generalizing from having people claim to deduce more, um, recent theories. You’re right, it doesn’t stand or fall on that basis.
Funny how they were all made before anyone suggested they were deducible from atheism.
… was originally predicted as a result of a rational Creator, not the lack of one. Arguably it was the wrong deduction given the premise, but still.
Let me repeat myself.
If a hypothesis actually gave enough information to deduce our current model of the universe plus or minus how uncertain we are about it, what are the odds it wouldn’t reveal more?
If an atheist from any period up to the present could have gained information not already discovered (but that we now know, of course) why does this effect mysteriously vanish when we move from a hypothetical past atheist to actual current atheists living in the modern world?
This reminds me of people who claim that they rationally evaluated everything they grew up being taught, and lo and behold they were right about everything already, despite having believed it for arational reasons.
Other way around, I would think. References? Everyone was a theist back in the days of Roger Bacon, they had to be. So did anyone decide, “God is rational”, and then deduce “we can attain all manner of powers if we just investigate how things work”? Or was it a case of discovering the effectiveness of empirical investigation, then deducing the rationality of God—either from genuine faith or just as a way of avoiding charges of heresy?
Because, as I said, it’s been done, mined out before open atheism was even a thing. “There is no God” has precious little implication beyond “this is not a benevolent universe and it’s up to us to figure everything out and save ourselves.” In contrast, “There is a God (of the Christian/Jewish/Muslim type)” leads to the false prediction that the universe is benevolent, rescued by postulating hidden or mysterious benevolence. The theist can take their pick of it being understandable (“the rational works of a rational God”) or not (“mysterious ways”), although the former is in some conflict with the postulate of benevolence passing human understanding.
Damn you, source amnesia! shakes fist
Here’s a small piece of corroborating evidence while I try and remember:
-Lewis, C.S., Miracles: a preliminary study, Collins, London, p. 110, 1947.
It’s possible I was generalizing from having people claim to deduce more, um, recent theories. You’re right, it doesn’t stand or fall on that basis.