I’d definitely call any assumption about which forms preferred explanations should take as a “prior”. Maybe I have a more flexible concept of what counts as Bayesian than you, in that sense? Priors don’t need to be free parameters, the process has to start somewhere. But if you already have some data and then acquire some more data, obviously the previous data will still affect your conclusions.
The problem with calling parts of a learning algorithm a prior that are not free variables, is that then anything (every part of any learning algorithm) would count as a prior. So even the Bayesian conditionalization rule itself. But that’s not what Bayesians consider part of a prior.
I’d definitely call any assumption about which forms preferred explanations should take as a “prior”. Maybe I have a more flexible concept of what counts as Bayesian than you, in that sense? Priors don’t need to be free parameters, the process has to start somewhere. But if you already have some data and then acquire some more data, obviously the previous data will still affect your conclusions.
The problem with calling parts of a learning algorithm a prior that are not free variables, is that then anything (every part of any learning algorithm) would count as a prior. So even the Bayesian conditionalization rule itself. But that’s not what Bayesians consider part of a prior.