I think East Asian islands have a combination of 1 and 2. In Taiwan, the 30-40 year boom saw most people getting a piece of the pie. Few are desperate enough to resort to violent crimes. Does this seem reasonable?
It looks to me like here you are saying “Reducing the number of impoverished people causes a reduction in violent crime.” I believe this proposition is at least plausible. But isn’t it a quite different claim from “Reducing the amount of wealth disparity causes a reduction in violent crime.”?
Specifically, the number of impoverished people and the amount of wealth disparity are not the same thing (although empirically they may have some common relationship in the contemporary world). Consider two possible societies of 100 people:
(A) Each person has a net worth of $500.
(B) Half the people have a net worth of $75,000 and the other half have a net worth of $3,000,000.
Notice, (B) has more wealth disparity than (A), but it also has fewer impoverished people than (A). And I would expect (B) to have less violent crime than (A).
It looks to me like here you are saying “Reducing the number of impoverished people causes a reduction in violent crime.” I believe this proposition is at least plausible. But isn’t it a quite different claim from “Reducing the amount of wealth disparity causes a reduction in violent crime.”?
Specifically, the number of impoverished people and the amount of wealth disparity are not the same thing (although empirically they may have some common relationship in the contemporary world). Consider two possible societies of 100 people:
(A) Each person has a net worth of $500.
(B) Half the people have a net worth of $75,000 and the other half have a net worth of $3,000,000.
Notice, (B) has more wealth disparity than (A), but it also has fewer impoverished people than (A). And I would expect (B) to have less violent crime than (A).
Does this seem correct to you?