There are lot of interferences used where its unclear whether one can use old defintions for them. For example in paraconsistent logics some sorts of negation propagations are not always available (ie you might not have ~(P^Q)=>~P^~Q or ~~P=>P). It raises a suspicion where the interferences presented are a pre-formal mess. Thus I have a feeling that I am constantly “repairing” the message of the post to get it be relevant to me while it does seem there is substance to be salvaged.
If Gary says “this statement’s metalanguage is false” and Alice says “Vad Gary säger är falsk” and David says “Was Gary sagen ist falsch” does Gary refer to Swedish or German? I think it’s plausible that Gary’s statement does not by itself succesfully refer to Swedish or German and it remains plausible for me that there is really no good way from the object language to get a refererence to the metalanguage.
There are lot of interferences used where its unclear whether one can use old defintions for them. For example in paraconsistent logics some sorts of negation propagations are not always available (ie you might not have ~(P^Q)=>~P^~Q or ~~P=>P). It raises a suspicion where the interferences presented are a pre-formal mess. Thus I have a feeling that I am constantly “repairing” the message of the post to get it be relevant to me while it does seem there is substance to be salvaged.
If Gary says “this statement’s metalanguage is false” and Alice says “Vad Gary säger är falsk” and David says “Was Gary sagen ist falsch” does Gary refer to Swedish or German? I think it’s plausible that Gary’s statement does not by itself succesfully refer to Swedish or German and it remains plausible for me that there is really no good way from the object language to get a refererence to the metalanguage.