This is very basic and is absolutely essential to understanding any sort of data of this sort. When I say that there is no evidence for it, I am saying precisely that—just because someone studied 20 colors of M&M’s and found that one has a 95% chance of causing more cancer tells me nothing. It isn’t evidence for anything. It is entirely possible that it DOES cause cancer, but the study has failed to provide me for evidence of that fact.
When I said that “making the claim “no evidence to the contrary” shows that you have not read the literature, have not done a PubMed search on “ADHD, food dye”, and have no familiarity with toxicity studies in general,” I meant that literally. I’m well-aware of what 95% means and what publication bias means. If you had read the literature on ADHD and food dye, you would see that it is closer to a 50-50 split between studies concluding that there is or is not an effect on hyperactivity. You would know that some particular food dyes, e.g., tartrazine, are more controversial than others. You would also find that over the past 40 years, the list of food dyes claimed not to be toxic by the FDA and their European counterparts has been shrinking.
If you were familiar with toxicity studies in general, you would know that this is usually the case for any controversial substance. For instance, the FDA says there is “no evidence” that aspartame is toxic, and yet something like 75% of independent studies of aspartame concluded that it was toxic. The phrase “no evidence of toxicity”, when used by the FDA, is shorthand for something like “meta-analysis does not provide us with a single consistent toxicity narrative that conforms to our prior expectations”. You would also know that toxicity studies are frequently funded by the companies trying to sell the product being tested, and so publication bias works strongly against findings of toxicity.
This is very basic and is absolutely essential to understanding any sort of data of this sort. When I say that there is no evidence for it, I am saying precisely that—just because someone studied 20 colors of M&M’s and found that one has a 95% chance of causing more cancer tells me nothing. It isn’t evidence for anything. It is entirely possible that it DOES cause cancer, but the study has failed to provide me for evidence of that fact.
When I said that “making the claim “no evidence to the contrary” shows that you have not read the literature, have not done a PubMed search on “ADHD, food dye”, and have no familiarity with toxicity studies in general,” I meant that literally. I’m well-aware of what 95% means and what publication bias means. If you had read the literature on ADHD and food dye, you would see that it is closer to a 50-50 split between studies concluding that there is or is not an effect on hyperactivity. You would know that some particular food dyes, e.g., tartrazine, are more controversial than others. You would also find that over the past 40 years, the list of food dyes claimed not to be toxic by the FDA and their European counterparts has been shrinking.
If you were familiar with toxicity studies in general, you would know that this is usually the case for any controversial substance. For instance, the FDA says there is “no evidence” that aspartame is toxic, and yet something like 75% of independent studies of aspartame concluded that it was toxic. The phrase “no evidence of toxicity”, when used by the FDA, is shorthand for something like “meta-analysis does not provide us with a single consistent toxicity narrative that conforms to our prior expectations”. You would also know that toxicity studies are frequently funded by the companies trying to sell the product being tested, and so publication bias works strongly against findings of toxicity.