I’m pointing out that almost everyone considers equitable distributions of utility better than inequitable distributions.
If that is true, then that means their utility is a function of the distribution of others’ utility, and they will maximize their expected utility by maximizing the expected equity of others’ utility.
So why do we not consider equitable distributions of utility among our future selves to be better than inequitable distributions?
Is this the case? I don’t know how you reached this conclusion. Even if it is the case, I also don’t see how this is necessarily inconsistent unless one also makes the claim that they make no value distinction between future selves and other people.
If that is true, then that means their utility is a function of the distribution of others’ utility, and they will maximize their expected utility by maximizing the expected equity of others’ utility.
Is this the case? I don’t know how you reached this conclusion. Even if it is the case, I also don’t see how this is necessarily inconsistent unless one also makes the claim that they make no value distinction between future selves and other people.