I have some skepticism for the HIV/AIDS theory, perhaps on the level of say 20-30%. More concretely, I would roughly say I am only about 70% confident that HIV is the sole cause of AIDS,
This much at least is something that should be relatively easy to confirm to a reasonable level of satisfaction. It would seem to require only a microscope, as syringe and a sufficient sample of people with AIDS. Has anybody ever founds someone with AIDS who did not have HIV? If not is that because nobody has bothered to take a close look? If so then I would certainly support your questioning of the standard of research supporting the mainstream position.
Has anybody ever founds someone with AIDS who did not have HIV?
According to skeptics, yes, in all but name. The standard skeptical argument is that AIDS, as it is currently defined, includes HIV+ as a necessary diagnostic criterion, and that this is a circular definition: if someone presents with all the symptoms of AIDS, but tests HIV-, then they are defined to not have AIDS. This means that 100% of diagnosed AIDS patients will be HIV+, just by definition, not due to a meaningful correlation.
It would seem to require only a microscope, as syringe and a sufficient sample of people with AIDS
The skeptical position here is that you can’t actually see a virus with an optical microscope (which I believe is true), and “HIV tests” are actually just testing for HIV antibodies (or substances alleged to be HIV antibodies), not HIV itself.
I’m not endorsing these positions, just passing them along, btw.
I have some skepticism for the HIV/AIDS theory, perhaps on the level of say 20-30%. More concretely, I would roughly say I am only about 70% confident that HIV is the sole cause of AIDS,
This is something that should be relatively easy to confirm to a reasonable level of satisfaction. It would seem to require only a microscope, as syringe and a sufficient sample of people with AIDS. Has anybody ever founds someone with AIDS who did not have HIV?
Yes, unless one defines AIDS as a collection of symptoms plus HIV. I forget the name, but any definition of AIDS which does not include HIV has some HIV-.
Now on the other hand, AIDS is a syndrome of immune supression, not a disease, so there of course could be other things that cause a similar syndrome.
If not is that because nobody has bothered to take a close look? If so then I would certainly support your questioning of the standard of research supporting the mainstream position.
If you are interested in venturing down that rabbit hole, read a little Duesberg:
(warning: reading his papers may result in general increased skepticism about the medical establishment)
Now on the other hand, AIDS is a syndrome of immune supression, not a disease, so there of course could be other things that cause a similar syndrome.
Now that is a familiar mistake—and a negligence that does real damage. I’m more familiar with the mental side of the medical establishment so have seen, for example, ADD symptoms lumped together and medicated presuming there is only one distinct etiology. Looking at a brain scan could tell them the difference easily enough.
(warning: reading his papers may result in general increased skepticism about the medical establishment)
That would be surprising—purely because my existing skepticism is already significant. All the more so after I spent some time involved in medical research myself. Scary stuff. “Hang on, wait. you want me to do what with the data?”
This much at least is something that should be relatively easy to confirm to a reasonable level of satisfaction. It would seem to require only a microscope, as syringe and a sufficient sample of people with AIDS. Has anybody ever founds someone with AIDS who did not have HIV? If not is that because nobody has bothered to take a close look? If so then I would certainly support your questioning of the standard of research supporting the mainstream position.
According to skeptics, yes, in all but name. The standard skeptical argument is that AIDS, as it is currently defined, includes HIV+ as a necessary diagnostic criterion, and that this is a circular definition: if someone presents with all the symptoms of AIDS, but tests HIV-, then they are defined to not have AIDS. This means that 100% of diagnosed AIDS patients will be HIV+, just by definition, not due to a meaningful correlation.
The skeptical position here is that you can’t actually see a virus with an optical microscope (which I believe is true), and “HIV tests” are actually just testing for HIV antibodies (or substances alleged to be HIV antibodies), not HIV itself.
I’m not endorsing these positions, just passing them along, btw.
Thankyou. I’m not familiar with the subject and wanted the information.
Yes, unless one defines AIDS as a collection of symptoms plus HIV. I forget the name, but any definition of AIDS which does not include HIV has some HIV-.
Now on the other hand, AIDS is a syndrome of immune supression, not a disease, so there of course could be other things that cause a similar syndrome.
If you are interested in venturing down that rabbit hole, read a little Duesberg:
(warning: reading his papers may result in general increased skepticism about the medical establishment)
http://www.duesberg.com/papers/chemical-bases.html
Now that is a familiar mistake—and a negligence that does real damage. I’m more familiar with the mental side of the medical establishment so have seen, for example, ADD symptoms lumped together and medicated presuming there is only one distinct etiology. Looking at a brain scan could tell them the difference easily enough.
That would be surprising—purely because my existing skepticism is already significant. All the more so after I spent some time involved in medical research myself. Scary stuff. “Hang on, wait. you want me to do what with the data?”