The fees are always 2% of the transaction value; i.e. numShares*avgPrice. The trick I described lets you substitute (1-avgPrice) when that would be cheaper . I should’ve been much clearer about this initially; I forgot that most people here probably don’t know the polymarket fee structure.
How high are the fees in that case?
The fees are always 2% of the transaction value; i.e. numShares*avgPrice. The trick I described lets you substitute (1-avgPrice) when that would be cheaper . I should’ve been much clearer about this initially; I forgot that most people here probably don’t know the polymarket fee structure.