Feels like an example of bad discourse that you dismiss it on the basis of ace trans women without responding to what Blanchardians have to say about ace trans women.
Thanks for the link, but I’d say the text actually confirms my point rather than contradicting it. The numbers referred to:
“In this study, Blanchard (...) found that 75% of his asexual group answered yes. Similarly, Nuttbrock found that 67% of his asexual group had experienced transvestic arousal at some point in their lives. (...) 45.2% of the asexuals feel that it applies at least a little bit to them (...)”
Can all be reversed to show that, respectively, 25% / 33% / 54.8% of aro-ace trans individuals answer in the negative, and the rebuttal of the universality of the hypothesis needs only these numbers to be non-zero. That they’re this high comes as an added bonus, so to speak.
I would enjoy if someone could lay it out in a more comprehensible manner.
This is being constantly done. Over the last 20+ years, as neuroimaging and autopsy techniques advance, and new studies are done using those more advanced techniques, we mostly get corroborations with more precision, not falsifications. There are occasional null results, so that isn’t strictly always the case, but those come as outliers, not forming a new, contrary body of evidence, and not significantly affecting the trend identified as meta-analyses keep being done.
I’m not aware of someone having done a formal Bayesian calculation on this, but my impression is it’d show the scale constantly sliding toward the physiological hypothesis, and away from the autogynephilic one, as time advances, with only small backslides along the way.
Thanks for the link, but I’d say the text actually confirms my point rather than contradicting it.
I mean sure if you take self-reports as the absolute truth rather than suspecting various problems with them, but then why go with the convoluted point about aro-ace trans women instead of just saying “most trans women disagree with autogynephilia theory”?
(I don’t think self-reports should be taken as an absolute truth, but in arguing about that we get into the complicated weeds of the typology that I don’t feel like arguing about here. Feel free to start a top-level thread about it or engage about it in one of the other places where it is relevant, e.g. here.)
This is being constantly done. Over the last 20+ years, as neuroimaging and autopsy techniques advance, and new studies are done using those more advanced techniques, we mostly get corroborations with more precision, not falsifications. There are occasional null results, so that isn’t strictly always the case, but those come as outliers, not forming a new, contrary body of evidence, and not significantly affecting the trend identified as meta-analyses keep being done.
More studies != better integration of the information from those studies into a coherent explanation.
I mean sure if you take self-reports as the absolute truth (...)
Absolute truth doesn’t exist, the range is always ]0;1[. 0 and 1 require infinitely strong evidence. What imprecisions in self-reporting do generate is higher variance, skewing, bias etc., and these can be solved by better causal hypotheses. However, those causal hypotheses must be predictive and falsifiable.
why go with the convoluted point about aro-ace trans women (...)
Because that’s central to the falsifiability requirement. Consider: if transgender individuals explicitly telling researchers they never experienced autogynephilic impulses, nor any sexual impulse or attraction at all, is dismissed by the autogynephilic hypothesis proponents and considered invalid, with proponents suggesting they actually did experience it but {ad hoc rationalization follows}, then what is the autogynephilic hypothesis’ falsifiability criteria? Is there any?
More studies != better integration of the information from those studies into a coherent explanation.
There are several moments in research.
The initial hypothesis is simple: there are identifiable physiological differences between human male and female brains, and transgender individuals’ brains show distinctive traits typical of the brains of the other sex, while cisgender individuals don’t.
This is testable, with clear falsifiability criteria, and provides a pathway for the development of a taxonomy of such differences, including typical values, typical variances, normal distributions for each sex, a full binomial distribution to cover both sexes, and the ability to position an individual’s brain somewhere along that binomial distribution.
Following that taxonomic mapping, if it pans out, there come questions of causality, such as what causes some individual brains to fall so distantly from the average for their birth sex. But that’s a further development way down the line. Right now what matters is the first stage is falsifiable and has been experiencing constant corroboration, not constant falsification.
So now it’s a matter of contrasting this theory’s falsifiability track record with the autogynephilic hypothesis’s falsifiability track record—supposing there’s one.
Absolute truth doesn’t exist, the range is always ]0;1[. 0 and 1 require infinitely strong evidence. What imprecisions in self-reporting do generate is higher variance, skewing, bias etc., and these can be solved by better causal hypotheses. However, those causal hypotheses must be predictive and falsifiable.
Yeah I know, I’ve put a lot of effort into this. See also: my blog.
Because that’s central to the falsifiability requirement. Consider: if transgender individuals explicitly telling researchers they never experienced autogynephilic impulses, nor any sexual impulse or attraction at all, is dismissed by the autogynephilic hypothesis proponents and considered invalid, with proponents suggesting they actually did experience it but {ad hoc rationalization follows}, then what is the autogynephilic hypothesis’ falsifiability criteria? Is there any?
The initial hypothesis is simple: there are identifiable physiological differences between human male and female brains, transgender individuals’ brains show distinctive traits typical of the brains of the other sex, while cisgender individuals don’t.
This is testable, with clear falsifiability criteria, and provides a pathway for the development of a taxonomy of such differences, including typical values, typical variances, normal distributions for each sex, a full binomial distribution to cover both sexes, and the ability to position an individual’s brain somewhere along that binomial distribution.
Following that taxonomic mapping, if it pans out, there come questions of causality, such as what causes some individual brains to fall so distantly from the average for their birth sex. But that’s a further development way down the line. Right now what matters is the first stage is falsifiable and has been experiencing constant corroboration, not constant falsification.
So now it’s a matter of contrasting this theory’s falsifiability track record with the autogynephilic hypothesis’s falsifiability track record—supposing there’s one.
I’d think this only works if you have a shitton of data, which these studies don’t. Maybe I’m confused though, which is where a more coherent explanation would help.
Thanks for the link, but I’d say the text actually confirms my point rather than contradicting it. The numbers referred to:
“In this study, Blanchard (...) found that 75% of his asexual group answered yes. Similarly, Nuttbrock found that 67% of his asexual group had experienced transvestic arousal at some point in their lives. (...) 45.2% of the asexuals feel that it applies at least a little bit to them (...)”
Can all be reversed to show that, respectively, 25% / 33% / 54.8% of aro-ace trans individuals answer in the negative, and the rebuttal of the universality of the hypothesis needs only these numbers to be non-zero. That they’re this high comes as an added bonus, so to speak.
This is being constantly done. Over the last 20+ years, as neuroimaging and autopsy techniques advance, and new studies are done using those more advanced techniques, we mostly get corroborations with more precision, not falsifications. There are occasional null results, so that isn’t strictly always the case, but those come as outliers, not forming a new, contrary body of evidence, and not significantly affecting the trend identified as meta-analyses keep being done.
I’m not aware of someone having done a formal Bayesian calculation on this, but my impression is it’d show the scale constantly sliding toward the physiological hypothesis, and away from the autogynephilic one, as time advances, with only small backslides along the way.
I mean sure if you take self-reports as the absolute truth rather than suspecting various problems with them, but then why go with the convoluted point about aro-ace trans women instead of just saying “most trans women disagree with autogynephilia theory”?
(I don’t think self-reports should be taken as an absolute truth, but in arguing about that we get into the complicated weeds of the typology that I don’t feel like arguing about here. Feel free to start a top-level thread about it or engage about it in one of the other places where it is relevant, e.g. here.)
More studies != better integration of the information from those studies into a coherent explanation.
Absolute truth doesn’t exist, the range is always ]0;1[. 0 and 1 require infinitely strong evidence. What imprecisions in self-reporting do generate is higher variance, skewing, bias etc., and these can be solved by better causal hypotheses. However, those causal hypotheses must be predictive and falsifiable.
Because that’s central to the falsifiability requirement. Consider: if transgender individuals explicitly telling researchers they never experienced autogynephilic impulses, nor any sexual impulse or attraction at all, is dismissed by the autogynephilic hypothesis proponents and considered invalid, with proponents suggesting they actually did experience it but {ad hoc rationalization follows}, then what is the autogynephilic hypothesis’ falsifiability criteria? Is there any?
There are several moments in research.
The initial hypothesis is simple: there are identifiable physiological differences between human male and female brains, and transgender individuals’ brains show distinctive traits typical of the brains of the other sex, while cisgender individuals don’t.
This is testable, with clear falsifiability criteria, and provides a pathway for the development of a taxonomy of such differences, including typical values, typical variances, normal distributions for each sex, a full binomial distribution to cover both sexes, and the ability to position an individual’s brain somewhere along that binomial distribution.
Following that taxonomic mapping, if it pans out, there come questions of causality, such as what causes some individual brains to fall so distantly from the average for their birth sex. But that’s a further development way down the line. Right now what matters is the first stage is falsifiable and has been experiencing constant corroboration, not constant falsification.
So now it’s a matter of contrasting this theory’s falsifiability track record with the autogynephilic hypothesis’s falsifiability track record—supposing there’s one.
Yeah I know, I’ve put a lot of effort into this. See also: my blog.
In some of the studies, it included asking wives, looking at prior patient reports, or measuring erections in response to being read stories. Personally, I have done the research by looking at prior responses prior to transition.
I’d think this only works if you have a shitton of data, which these studies don’t. Maybe I’m confused though, which is where a more coherent explanation would help.
See also: 5-HTTLPR: A POINTED REVIEW.