Coming back to this question after a few years, I was able to find a surprisingly simple Econ 101 answer in five minutes. To zeroth order, there’s no change because the amount of goods and services in the economy stays the same. To first order, allowing a deal to be freely made usually increases total value in the economy, not just the value for those making the deal; so this deal is good for the economy iff both sides agree to it.
That sidesteps all complications like “the parents are happy to help their child”, “the apartment might have facilities that the child doesn’t need”, etc. I guess reading an econ textbook has taught me to look for ways to estimate the total without splitting it up.
Coming back to this question after a few years, I was able to find a surprisingly simple Econ 101 answer in five minutes. To zeroth order, there’s no change because the amount of goods and services in the economy stays the same. To first order, allowing a deal to be freely made usually increases total value in the economy, not just the value for those making the deal; so this deal is good for the economy iff both sides agree to it.
That sidesteps all complications like “the parents are happy to help their child”, “the apartment might have facilities that the child doesn’t need”, etc. I guess reading an econ textbook has taught me to look for ways to estimate the total without splitting it up.