I’m quite unclear about the statistics. The standard approach would likely be to use statistics that output some p-value.
Did you follow some explicit other statistical approach that’s standardized somewhere where you would argue that it’s better for this problem?
Generally, if 17% of the variation of concentration would be explained by masturbation that doesn’t seem to me like it would support saying that masturbation doesn’t matter.
I’m quite unclear about the statistics. The standard approach would likely be to use statistics that output some p-value.
Did you follow some explicit other statistical approach that’s standardized somewhere where you would argue that it’s better for this problem?
Generally, if 17% of the variation of concentration would be explained by masturbation that doesn’t seem to me like it would support saying that masturbation doesn’t matter.