I would say that the reason for your intuition that uncertainty ⇒ gaps (which seems separate from risk-aversion-induced gaps) is that the person on the other end of the bet may have information you don’t, and so them offering to bet you counts as Bayesian evidence that the side they’re betting on is correct.
However, e.g., a simple computer program can commit to not knowing anything about the world, and solve this problem.
I would say that the reason for your intuition that uncertainty ⇒ gaps (which seems separate from risk-aversion-induced gaps) is that the person on the other end of the bet may have information you don’t, and so them offering to bet you counts as Bayesian evidence that the side they’re betting on is correct.
However, e.g., a simple computer program can commit to not knowing anything about the world, and solve this problem.